Remembering God's Name

[FredVB]

When God says this is my name for ever, in Exodus 3, what is the name being referred to? With many translations, although the ones that come to mind I respect as very good translations, you would easily conclude that I AM is the name referred to. Keep in mind though the knowledge that these translations follow a long tradition, certainly influenced by a push of Jewish leaders on their followers, and render the name Yahweh as LORD, and if you read it while seeing it would be the name Yahweh in those places, in this passage it would become rather plain that the name Yahweh is the name referred to. Of course, God's name is tied up with his answer to Moses for the Israelites that he said I AM THAT I AM and I AM sends Moses. We know there is meaning we can grasp in God's phrase I AM, it is used by Jesus so giving testimony to divinity, and the name of Yahweh certainly has a similar sound to the Hebrew phrase for I AM. So deep meaning this way is tied by this revelation from God to his name.

I would say following Jewish tradition of the time that Jewish leaders pushed followers to not pronounce the name of God is not a good idea without Biblical basis. In old testament times, it is clear from many passages that people of God freely used the name of Yahweh, in speaking of him and to him, and not speaking his name in vain, which would be the case if not really speaking of him or to him. The commandments should really have us speaking Yahweh's name, but not without an attitude of reverence to him.

By the way, I am not part of any movement that would have us think that to be saved we need any thing other than to believe and put our faith in Jesus Christ our Lord and Savior. But we should believe the Bible for the meaning of what was originally written, not settling for anything replacing any actual word, translated or transliterated.

Jesus rejected traditions of men that were not supported by anything in the Bible. God had told Moses, when he first called him and Moses questioned how he could tell Israelites God had sent him and not have the name of God, Tell them, Yahweh, God of your fathers, has sent you... This is my name, for all generations.

As it was to be remembered, for all generations, and Jewish tradition was going to permit it to be forgotten by not being spoken, but this later than the time the Hebrew scriptures were written, those who promoted the tradition were disobedient to God. Jesus would have nothing to do with this disobedience, and didn't.

God would not possibly be mistaken in saying that it is for all generations. There is no other Bible portion that negates this position from the Bible.

If we agree scripture called for the name to be spoken... and pronounced... regularly, why should it become not permissible, when that would not come from scripture, but rather the traditions I mentioned? If you say that because we do not know how it is pronounced, why presume to know it? That is very much something I am referring to about being forgotten, even if Jews can know the four consonants. I do not know about when Christians were forgetting it, but it was not forgotten among the first Christians. But my point is that if God said it was for all generations, as God would not be mistaken about it, and knowing all the history yet to come, it is logical the name with its pronunciation was not totally forgotten, even if most Jews will not use it, even with saying that the pronunciation is forgotten, although generally not for that reason. There is ancient Greek writing that is known that puts the pronunciation with Greek letters. As God knew what he was saying, it is reasonable to conclude this preserved pronunciation is the true one, with is no likely contender.

I have just seen two reproductions of God's name as the ancient Greeks could write it in their writing, and it was with the Greek letters. I happen to be fluent in another language, and I know there are consonants in speech that are not used but with difficulty by those using another language. My own last name would give no English speaker difficulty but comes out with difficulty and is not spoken quite right by those only speaking the other language I know. I say this to portray that, as the ancient Greeks did not have the consonants used in their language for Y, J, V, or W, any of which are thought to be part of God's name, the Greeks writing the name would use Greek sounds that they would think came closest to it. Vowel sounds of languages are universal. It can be noticed that vowels in the Greek writing, first 'alpha' and then 'eta' or 'epsilon', would give the vowel pronunciation for the name. As the four consonants of God's name are known anyway in Hebrew, the pronunciation should not be a mystery and thought of as something incapable of being settled. As I said, God said his name was to be remembered for all generations, and as God could not be mistaken to tell us that, we would necessarily have access to that pronunciation. Our rendering of it in our language as 'Yahweh' makes total sense on the basis of knowing about the Hebrew consonants and the Greek rendition in their writing.

There is not a good scriptural basis to say that God only means otherwise when he places an emphasis on his name.

I started on this topic in these forums earlier with some of these thoughts posted. See this,
http://www.christianforums.com/t7453767/

 

[ivebeenshown]

You ever think of what 'I AM' signifies in itself? Existence... being... the only thing that is non-existent is non-existence itself. The only thing that is zero is zero itself, the only thing that is nothing is nothing. Our LORD Jesus Christ is the great I AM, the infinite, boundless GOD.

I think a lot of people also fail to see that OMNIPOTENT means our God has power over all things... and since only nothing is nothing, that means logic is something. Our God can break free of logic if he so wills it. That is his power and his authority and his greatness and perfection. That is the knowledge that inspires fear, which is the beginning of our wisdom.

 

[FredVB]

I like your response, ivebeenshown. It did not seem to say anything that was disagreeing with what I said, if you did, do let me know, what was it? I too see that Yahweh God saying that he is the I AM, in the same way that Jesus implied it in his use of the phrase, means that he is the self-existent, meaning that he necessarily is, this is the nature of existence, or there would be nothing. His being so then means his existence is without limits, all his characteristics are without limit, so that as with many other things true of him, he his powerful over all without limit. These things are to be had in mind when he introduced the phrase that had a similar sound in Hebrew when he introduced his name, Yahweh, associated with it, to tell the elders of Israel to whom he would go to say that God had spoken to him.

I like to refer to Psalm 8:

1 O Yahweh, our Lord,
How excellent is Your name in all the earth,
Who have set Your glory above the heavens!

2 Out of the mouth of babes and nursing infants
You have ordained strength,
Because of Your enemies,
That You may silence the enemy and the avenger.

3 When I consider Your heavens, the work of Your fingers,
The moon and the stars, which You have ordained,
4 What is man that You are mindful of him,
And the son of man that You visit him?
5 For You have made him a little lower than the angels,
And You have crowned him with glory and honor.

6 You have made him to have dominion over the works of Your hands;
You have put all things under his feet,
7 All sheep and oxen—
Even the beasts of the field,
8 The birds of the air,
And the fish of the sea
That pass through the paths of the seas.

9 O Yahweh, our Lord,
How excellent is Your name in all the earth!