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Remarriage

Starwhite

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I have a question concerning the divorce/remarriage topic.
A woman is a Christian and she does not agree with divorce except in the case of adultery, just as Jesus said..
Her husband also professes to be a Christian, but he divorces her, claiming incompatibility. The laws of the land (Caesar) grant divorces for good reasons, bad reasons and no reasons. After a long while the husband's mind turns to her again and he decides he would like to take up life with her again.

1. According to Jesus' words, will she be commiting adultery if she sleeps with him again without the remarrying him, or as far as God is concerned she was never unmarried since neither had committed adultery.

2. Will she be commiting adultery as far as the law of the land is concerned and must needs remarry him.

3. If she decideds she will simply live with him again because she didn't accept the divorce since there was no adultery, will she lose al legal rights to his assets if he dies, because according to the law of the land they were divorced?

Would you sleep with a spouse without remarriage if he/she divorced you and no adultery was involved?
I would very much like to hear your views please. Prayerfully.

Starwhite.

 

Johnnz

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Following a divorce a marriage is over. So, you would need to get remarried.

Such a restrictive view of divorce (adultery only) relies on a misunderstanding of Jesus' words. You were divorced in both God's eyes and the state.

Remarriage is a big decision. Think carefully. I know cases where it has worked because of the people involved. But it won't unless underlying reasons for the original divorce are worked through.

John
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LJSGM

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They were never truely divorced in the first place.
government papers are not marriage.

1 Corinthians 7
10To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband. 11But if she does, she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife.

So, they can be reconciled, but does that nessesarily mean by recieving back their government papers? I don't think so. reconciliation is by coming back together as a married couple.
 
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~Nikki~

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They were never truely divorced in the first place.
government papers are not marriage.

1 Corinthians 7
10To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband. 11But if she does, she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife.

So, they can be reconciled, but does that nessesarily mean by recieving back their government papers? I don't think so. reconciliation is by coming back together as a married couple.


Good post - though maybe to avoid the 'appearance of evil' they should get remarried in the eyes of the government...
 
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HuntingMan

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I have a question concerning the divorce/remarriage topic.
A woman is a Christian and she does not agree with divorce except in the case of adultery, just as Jesus said..
Her husband also professes to be a Christian, but he divorces her, claiming incompatibility. The laws of the land (Caesar) grant divorces for good reasons, bad reasons and no reasons. After a long while the husband's mind turns to her again and he decides he would like to take up life with her again.

1. According to Jesus' words, will she be commiting adultery if she sleeps with him again without the remarrying him, or as far as God is concerned she was never unmarried since neither had committed adultery.

2. Will she be commiting adultery as far as the law of the land is concerned and must needs remarry him.

3. If she decideds she will simply live with him again because she didn't accept the divorce since there was no adultery, will she lose al legal rights to his assets if he dies, because according to the law of the land they were divorced?

Would you sleep with a spouse without remarriage if he/she divorced you and no adultery was involved?
I would very much like to hear your views please. Prayerfully.

Starwhite.


This might help with understanding what 'divorce' is in scripture



What is 'putting away/divorce' in Gods word ?
by william tipton


The Greek word rendered as "divorce" or "putting away" in our Bibles literally means to dismiss, let depart, let go, loose, put away, to set free, send away, set at liberty, and depart.
The Hebrew means to drive out, put away, be cast out, drive away, expel, and thrust out.

In the Bible putting away or divorce is to depart, to go away, be driven out, or sent away, a repudiation, an abandonment. It has nothing to do with a court of law, or a judge, or county records, or the official declaration "divorce granted."

Divorce occurs in scripture when a man or woman deserts or abandons the marriage with that intent, or has cast out their spouse with that intent.
A spouse may go on an extended trip for business or to visit family, and that is not a divorce/putting away because there is no intent to do so.
When there is intent to leave the marriage itself, or to cast out ones spouse, that is when 'putting away/divorce' occurs in Gods word.

This is proven as factual in the most amazing place and that is right dead in the middle of one of the greatest pet passages of the anti-remarriage camp....1 Cor 7:10-11, where this believing woman has departed from her believing husband and is deemed as 'agamos' by Paul....UNmarried. (see our studied 'Unmarried' for more information)

What is made clear from ALL of scripture is that departing the marriage with the intent of no longer being married is considered 'divorce/putting away'. There is no such thing as 'legal separation' in Gods word where a spouse can just leave the marriage and choose to be absent from it indefinitely against the will of the other spouse.

Now, of course the Hebrews and mankind in general has perverted all this, but do the study yourself from Gods whole word and see if you find anything different. Even the writ of divorce was simply told by Moses to be put into her hand and then she was to be 'sent out'...there was no court, no lawyer, no final decree and surely no $2000 retainer.

Here are some of the definitions of the words from the greek and hebrew. These conclusively show that the act of casting out a spouse is precisely what 'divorce' or 'putting away' is.

"Put Asunder"
G5563
χωρίζω
chōrizō
kho-rid'-zo
From G5561; to place room between, that is, part; reflexively to go away: - depart, put asunder, separate.


"Put Away"
G630
ἀπολύω
apoluō
ap-ol-oo'-o
From G575 and G3089; to free fully, that is, (literally) relieve, release, dismiss (reflexively depart), or (figuratively) let die, pardon, or (specifically) divorce: - (let) depart, dismiss, divorce, forgive, let go, loose, put (send) away, release, set at liberty.

"Divorcement"
G647
ἀποστάσιον
apostasion
ap-os-tas'-ee-on
Neuter of a (presumed) adjective from a derivative of G868; properly something separative, that is, (specifically) divorce: - (writing of) divorcement.
 
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HuntingMan

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Here Paul shows conclusively that man CAN 'put asunder' despite what some try to assert.



"Put Asunder"/"Depart", Jesus versus Paul ?
By WmTipton


Assertions/Conclusions of this Article
Here we will show that not only can one put asunder a marriage (that its possible), but Paul even gives instruction to do just that in certain cases.

Supporting Evidence
1.0
There is an errant teaching out there that claims that when Jesus said 'let not man put asunder' regarding marriage, that He 'meant' man CANNOT put asunder.
L: “When God joins two together, they are now ONE. What GOD joins, man CANNOT separate”
What we will show briefly in this article that there IS an occurance in scripture where it is shown absolutely that man can indeed 'put asunder' what God has joined together.
See 'put asunder' in each of these passages?
(Mat 19:6) Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder(G5563).

(Mar 10:9) What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder(G5563).
(Bearing in mind that, in the context these are in, Jesus and the pharisees are discussing putting away of a wife there in BOTH of those passages. The context of 'put asunder' is putting away of a marriage/wife, nothing less.)

The word is (G5563)chorizo and it only appears a few times in scripture.
G5563
χωρίζω
chōrizō
Thayer Definition:
1) to separate, divide, part, put asunder, to separate one’s self from, to depart
1a) to leave a husband or wife
1a) of divorce
1b) to depart, go away
That word 'put asunder' is the EXACT same word for "depart" in 1 cor 7:11
(1Co 7:11) But and if she depart(G5563), let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.
...in other words, Paul has just said this woman has done the exact thing that some claim that Jesus said men CANNOT do....'put asunder'.

Notice Paul makes no claim that she 'cannot' put asunder (depart), but clearly presents that IF she DOES do so, then this is the situation....she is to remain "agamos" (literally "UNmarried").
*IF* putting asunder were IMPOSSIBLE for man to do...then why doesnt Paul REstate (*IF* that were Jesus actual meaning) this fact ?
WHY does he simply say *IF* she puts asunder then ...... ?
*IF* no man can put asunder, then Paul makes absolutely no sense here whatsoever. He should have simply stated that it was impossible to do so.
The word in question pretty much just means to "place room between", "depart" or to "separate"...its not some magical phrase that Jesus used to make a marriage bond unbreakable...

What I find striking is that Paul could have used a number of other choices in demonstrating that this woman had left her husband...but chose the one word that was used in rendering Jesus' words about putting asunder.
Was it coincedence or intentional? Was Paul literally reaching out and using the one word that would make it clear that putting asunder IS indeed possible?
We wont know until that day, for sure...but we do know now that regardless of what some say, that Paul has shown that man CAN 'put asunder'....that is factual.
Certainly a call to reconcile is made to the believers...but this doesnt negate what is clearly presented in Gods word....man CAN indeed put asunder (separate) by Pauls own words.


2.0
Now that its been established that man can indeed ‘put asunder’ (chorizo) a marriage, we move on to something even more astounding. Clear instruction for the believer to actually allow the unbelieving spouse to ‘put asunder’ the marriage.

Heres a very remarkable passage that blows L’s statement above, that man CANNOT separate right out of the water. And not only that, it is our very own Paul giving INSTRUCTION for this believer to let it be so.
1Co 7:15 KJV But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
Remember “chorizo”G5563 our word from above ? Can you guess what greek word ‘depart’ there is rendered from ?
You got it...the very same ‘chorizo’ (put asunder from Jesus’ statement ‘let not man put asunder”) is right there in Paul own instruction to let the unbeliever do.

So we not only see absolute proof that man CAN put asunder a marriage, but we now have Paul even telling the believer to let the unbeliever do so !
This hardly sounds like a ‘cannot’ situation to me.

Now, of course this is not our Lords desire for marriage that it would ever have to be ended, but clearly He had enought forsight to show Paul to let the believer do EXACTLY what He Himself had told man not to do.

Why?
Because Jesus knows that no matter what we do as believers, there will always be unbelieving spouses who will not honor the covenant of marriage.


3.0

As we can see here in this passage, the believing wife who has departed (chorizo) her believing husband is considered 'agamos'.....'unmarried'.

(1Co 7:10 KJV) And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart(chorizo)from her husband:
(1Co 7:11 KJV) But and if she depart(chorizo), let her remain unmarried(agamos), or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.
Logically carrying this 'agamos' over to this passage where this unbeliever also has departed the marriage its quite easy to conclude that this person would also be deemed as 'agamos' (unmarried)
(1Co 7:15 KJV) But if the unbelieving depart(chorizo), , let him depart(chorizo), . A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
in the former case where both are believers there is commandment to remain UNmarried or reconcile.
In the latter case tho, where one is unequally yoked, Paul clearly states that he is speaking, not the Lord, in this matter.
To these Paul gives concession not given to those who are equally yoked with another believer.
"BUT to the REST"....to these who are unequally yoked, Paul says quite plainly that they are not in bondage to that union where it has been put asunder.

4.0
Another point of interest is in verse 7:11 where it says 'let her remain unmarried or reconcile to her husband" the actual greek means 'let her remain unmarried or to the man let her be being conciliated"
It is often pushed that the use of 'her husband' there means that she is still married to the man, but that is not proven from the actual Greek at all. The greek word for 'man' is also used for 'husband'.
Paul used 'agamos' to describe this woman for a reason.
 
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HuntingMan

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They were never truely divorced in the first place.
government papers are not marriage.

1 Corinthians 7
10To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband. 11But if she does, she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife.

So, they can be reconciled, but does that nessesarily mean by recieving back their government papers? I don't think so. reconciliation is by coming back together as a married couple.
Yes, they WERE divorced in the first place.
Just because Jesus assigns a sin to frivolous divorce and remarriage does NOT show that He negates that divorce.
*IF*, as you seem to believe, divorce did NOTHING to the marriage, then there would be no reason for Christ to be so against it, would there?
But since divorce DOES break the marriage covenant, it is no wonder that it is spoken of in such a negative light in scripture where it is done unjustly.




For the REST of the story concerning this passage...
"Remain Unmarried or reconcile” vs "not in bondage"
by Wm Tipton

Assertions/Conclusions of this Article
We will show briefly that the commandment of the Lord to ‘remain unmarried or reconcile’ is NOT a blanket commandment in all marital situations where a breaking of the marriage is taking place, but is instead directed to two believers who have left their marriage without just cause, and that Paul also had no commandment for those marriages that weren’t equally yoked, didnt given the same instruction to these who were married to an unbeliever, not having any commandment from the Lord in the matter, and then also offered a concession not given to those who were equally yoked to another believer who had left their marriage for whatever frivolous reason.

Supporting Evidence

Firstly lets look at the actual passages
"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:
But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife. (1Co 7:10-11 KJV)
vs
"But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away. And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him. (1Co 7:12- * KJV)
1.0
"Remain Unmarried or reconcile”

"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord,

It doesn’t take a rocket scientist or brain surgeon or even a biblical scholar to look at that passage as a whole, instead of breaking it into minute pieces as our false ones do, and see that overall Paul is speaking to two groups there. The first being those where obviously both the husband and the wife are both listening since Paul addresses both of them therein.
This idea is made absolute by Pauls making a clear distinction in his next words in saying “BUT TO THE REST SPEAK I, NOT THE LORD” where he shows clearly that he is now speaking to ‘the rest’ of married couples who do not fall into whatever category as the first group fell. These are defined as being those who are married to someone who ‘believeth not’ which we understand as as ‘unequally yoked’ marriage.

Notice that Paul makes it very clear that to these who ARENT married to someone who ‘believeth not’ that he isnt speaking, but the Lord is giving commandment to these.
Easy enough concept to see, to understand and to accept for those reading and being honest enough to let the words say what they simply state.

To these who arent married to someone who ‘believed not’, these are married to someone who instead is a believer. They cannot be anything else or otherwise Pauls words “BUT TO THE REST” when he speaks to the rest who are married make no logical sense whatsoever.
These in verses 7:10-11 MUST be those who are NOT married to someone who ‘believeth not’ but MUST be to those marriages where the person being spoken to is married to a believer. Being honest with ourselves, we accept the targets of these words to be those marriages where both persons are a believer...ie ‘equally yoked’.

To these, Paul shows that the Lord has given commandment if they depart to remain unmarried (ARAMOC/agamos/single/unwed) or reconcile with the man she left”
This makes logical sense and harmonizes quite well with Gods whole word and is even completely logical even if we set scripture aside for a moment.
These are two people who have compatible beliefs who, for whatever reason, have left their marriage who, as christians, should be quite interested in working together as ALL believers in Christ should be doing in order to be in harmony with one another.
BOTH of these persons, as followers of Jesus Christ, having entered a marital covenant and having set it aside for whatever frivolous reasonings, should be willing to work together to reunite what they created together previously and set aside without just cause.
The Lord has commanded these two believers to remain unmarried or reconcile this marriage cast away without just cause (as historical evidence of Corinth is quite capable of showing. That area was not exactly morally sound).


2.0
"not in bondage"

"But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not,

Now we move on ‘to the rest’....to those marriages where Paul is addressing the believer who is married to one who ‘believeth not’.

This is the greek for the ‘rest’...

G3062
Thayer Definition:
1) remaining, the rest
1a) the rest of any number or class under consideration
1b) with a certain distinction and contrast, the rest, who are not of a specific class or number
1c) the rest of the things that remain
These ‘rest’ are those that remain of the groups under consideration, which are clearly those whoare ‘married’. This ‘rest’ are those who are married to unbelievers, clearly indicating that the groups being spoken to in verses 7:10-11 are those who are believers married to believers...in other words, equally yoked.
Since the ‘rest’ are those who are Unequally yoked, logically there is no way that that Paul is speaking to ‘the rest’ in verses 7:10-11 then turning right around and addressing ‘the rest’ again starting in verse 7:12.

To ‘the rest’ who are clearly believers unequally yoked to unbelievers Paul has no commandment of the Lord but is clearly speaking his own mind in the matter. Believing that Paul may not be speaking by direct commandment, we still accept that he is speaking by inspiration of the Holy Spirit and thus his words are ‘law’ for these married to an unbelieving spouse.

Firstly we notice that Pauls words offer a more conditional tone.
“IF a brother has a wife who is pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away”.
If this brother is married to an unbelieving wife who wants to live in peace with him, then he should not put her away.
This church had asked questions of Paul and based on Pauls response its easy to determine that they must have believed that if they became born again, that somehow they were defiled by being with an unbelieving husband.
Paul lets them know in this passage that that isnt the case. The unbelieving spouse is sanctified by the believer (in a physical or spiritual ‘cleaness’ type of manner, not meaning a free ride to heaven without repentance or anything like that).
These clearly were under the impression that it might be ok to just walk out of a marriage if they became saved, yet their spouse did not.
Paul straightens out this erroneous viewpoint and lets them know that if the the unbeliever is mutually ‘pleased’ along with the believer and wants to remain in the marriage, then they arent to put them away, and may even be key to their spouses salvation.

Paul then goes on to give concession not given to the two believers above.
First there was no commandment at all from the Lord to these as with the equally yoked marriage, but Paul now tells these that if the unbeliever wishes to depart the marriage that the believer isnt in bondage to this marriage.

Instead of repeating other studies here, please see this page for more on this point.

Now, these folks will casually leave out that Paul gives instruction to TWO different married groups there and try to apply 1 Cor 7:10-11 to ALL marriages, but this makes Pauls statement of ‘BUT TO THE REST” and everything that follows completely illogical and unable to be harmonized with the whole properly.
And the reason they need to pull this deceptive tactic is because they like what the Lord has commanded in verses 7:10-11, but they arent too happy with Pauls concession in 7:12 and after. It completely destroys these false teachings of theirs that Paul offers this idea that the believer might not be forced to remain bound in marriage to an unbeliever in whatever circumstance, and so they force the text to give instruction to a group of people, those unequally yoked, that Paul CLEARLY says he has no word from the Lord to.

Thankfully, you readers are quite capable of seeing the wording used for yourself and seeing what is actually presented by Gods whole word....
 
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HuntingMan

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I have a question concerning the divorce/remarriage topic.
A woman is a Christian and she does not agree with divorce except in the case of adultery, just as Jesus said..
Her husband also professes to be a Christian, but he divorces her, claiming incompatibility. The laws of the land (Caesar) grant divorces for good reasons, bad reasons and no reasons. After a long while the husband's mind turns to her again and he decides he would like to take up life with her again.

1. According to Jesus' words, will she be commiting adultery if she sleeps with him again without the remarrying him, or as far as God is concerned she was never unmarried since neither had committed adultery.

2. Will she be commiting adultery as far as the law of the land is concerned and must needs remarry him.

3. If she decideds she will simply live with him again because she didn't accept the divorce since there was no adultery, will she lose al legal rights to his assets if he dies, because according to the law of the land they were divorced?

Would you sleep with a spouse without remarriage if he/she divorced you and no adultery was involved?
I would very much like to hear your views please. Prayerfully.

Starwhite.
IN direct response to the question, a marriage license means no more than a divorce decree. The paper Ceasar issues is for Ceasars protection, and that of the spouses to a far lesser extent, and does not either validate or nullify a marriage before God.
The covenant a man makes to this woman is what binds them, nothing more, nothing less.

That said, it is at the present time in the USA a good idea to have the protections provided by that license, say if a spouse dies...will the remaining spouse get the house? death benefits? etc.
 
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Starwhite

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I would like your opinion please.

Supposing a woman get married ten years later the marriage is dissolved/annulled even though fornication or adultery was not involved.

Bearing in mind Jesus said divorce for on reason only, fornication.
Apostle Paul said a woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives.

Divorce yes, but no remarriage and only for fornication. Now if that woman is bound to that husband as long as he lives, doesn’t it stand to reason that he is also bound to her? Is someone saying no? O.K. Handcuff a person to a policeman without the policeman being handcuffed to the person.

So if another woman marries that man while his first wife lives, she is a fornication.

God says he hates putting away. Jesus said the divorce was given by Moses because of hardness of heart.
Jesus said in the beginning God made them one.

God said why one? So hat the seed might be holy.

If a man is married to one living woman but has children with two living woman one of those women has illegitimate children. Illegitimate!

Before Jesus came an Israelite woman who was proven to not be a virgin when she married could be stoned if her husband chose.

Bastards were not allowed in the congregation.

It is cruel to have children while being unmarried because more often than not they are frustrated and do not know how to train their children or otherwise instill a sense of security and so it goes on.

God made very special plans as to how it should be but people who think otherwise have messed it up.

If Israel as a nation made sure that every Israelite woman was a virgin at the time of marriage; and if they made sure that heathen men and women were not allowed to enter their nation and mingle with their men, bring foul customs of slack living, wouldn’t it stand to reason that the Israelite men would also have to be virgins. God did NOT mess things up. Men did. Jesus said that at the beginning God only made two to become one.

Oh! And do not for one moment think that God hates these children because He does NOT. How do I know? I’m one of them.

Bye for now and God Bless!
 
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HuntingMan

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I would like your opinion please.

Not sure who you mean...maybe anyone/everyone ?
Supposing a woman get married ten years later the marriage is dissolved/annulled even though fornication or adultery was not involved.
Annulments arent given in scripture and create all sorts of undesirable implications for the wife and offspring of this marriage that 'never was'.
Divorce is scriptural as even God Himself gave a writ of divorement.
Bearing in mind Jesus said divorce for on reason only, fornication.
There is much context to this, but I agree with what you have stated, yes.
Apostle Paul said a woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives.
Again, this also is not an unconditional situation otherwise we have some major issues in other areas, but again, I agree with what you have stated in that scripture does assert as much.
Divorce yes, but no remarriage and only for fornication.
Disagree with part b there. The exceptoin applies to the entire statement.
One chap elsewhere even took the texts to grammar scholars and they could not remove the 'and marry another' from the exception given.
Now if that woman is bound to that husband as long as he lives, doesn’t it stand to reason that he is also bound to her? Is someone saying no? O.K. Handcuff a person to a policeman without the policeman being handcuffed to the person.
While I appreciate the attempt at an analogy, it isnt exactly accurate.
Yes, while they ARE bound BOTH persons are bound to the other, but handcuffs have keys....marriage has condition. If one is released from those cuffs from the other then BOTH are free of that union entirely.
Sin may have been committed in the process, surely it was on at least the part of one person, but when the cuffs are off, they're off entirely.
That is the reason why God HATES divorce. Because it is the literal destruction of the marriage covenant.
If it werent, if divorce did NOT break the marriage 'bond' then there would be no reason for God to hate it so nor for it to be frowned upon so greatly in scripture..
if another woman marries that man while his first wife lives, she is a fornication.

Not sure what you mean by 'she is a fornication'.
If its 'she is a fornicator' that could be the case IF the previous marriage was ended for no just cause.
And you have to understand that the greek shows that he act is happening in the present. The Indicative form was used for 'commits adultery' and is the ONLY way in the Present tense to show that this is only happening in the present at the time of the divorce/remarriage...ie is from the perspective of being in the middle of the action...and does not show any 'ongoing' issue at all
God says he hates putting away.
Absolutely He does show that.
And while He shows that He Himself gave a writ of divorce in Jeremiah and then later in Zechariah 11 shows that He ended/broke that covenant.
Jesus said the divorce was given by Moses because of hardness of heart.

There is more detail than this. Lets include it, shall we? :)
Moses had allowed divorce 'for EVERY cause'...for 'some uncleaness'...the phrase does not indicate any certain type of uncleaness but literally could have been becuase she didnt leave the camp to go to the restroom as Deut instructed.
this divorce Moses and Christ are dealing with that was hardhearted is FRIVOULOUS divorce.
Of course the Lord would call that 'hardhearted' and condemn it.
Jesus said in the beginning God made them one.
Correct.
Eve was a prototype..a 'shadow' of wives to come.
She is the first and only woman to literally be made of her husbands own flesh.
Since Eve, wives become 'one flesh' with their husbands by consummation or sex.
If a man is married to one living woman but has children with two living woman one of those women has illegitimate children. Illegitimate!

That depends.
The scriptures allow for polygamy. It is never shown as sin or unlawful and in one type of case could even be a commandment.
Before Jesus came an Israelite woman who was proven to not be a virgin when she married could be stoned if her husband chose.
There is no option given in the law for the husband. The law absolutely prescribed death.
Deut 24:1-4 isnt about sexual sin...its about putting away for some ambiguous 'uncleaness'....ie the 'hardheartedness' Jesus spoke of.
Jesus said that at the beginning God only made two to become one.
I dont like polygamy at all, but this isnt exactly what God said or Jesus said.
You added 'only' there.
*IF* that were the case we'd have an absolute precept agaisnt polygamy..and believe me nothing would please me more.
But we have to be honest in this discussion...scripture doesnt say "only".
There are some cases where God even seemed to be involved with the taking of a second wife.

God bless

 
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HuntingMan

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Thread moved from remarriage support forum. Please discuss nicely :wave:
Hi.
I did want to particpate in this thread, but just not in the remarriage support forum.
It shows as having been moved, but the links are still showing in the remarriage forum...is this normal ?

I wanted to book mark it before its lost but it isnt working correctly.
Ideas ?

:)

edit, forget it, I see where its at :D
 
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