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Who would like to have human faeces in their bloodstream giving a very large chance of serious infection anyway?I don't even do anal sex. A lot of homosexuals don't.
you took my post completely A about T... let me try again.
There is a whole raft of OT laws that Christians do not observe. these include enslaving enemies, executing disobedient children, forcing rape victims to marry their attackers, and showing moldy curtains to priests.
We are all pretty happy to disregard them completely as outdated irrelevant pieces of tribal custom.
Why is homosexuality different? why is the injunction against homosexuality still binding today, when the injunction against, for example, men shaving, isn't?
Shell fish are the hoover cleaners of the sea, they eat all the waste and crap from other creatures of the sea,that is why we are told not to eat shellfish,good advice.I'm not seeing any difference between shellfish and homosexuality... are you claiming to be unaware of the passages regarding shellfish?
I don't consider homosexuality sinful because it doesn't harm anyone, and enrichens people. No downside.
Why dont you read the Bible thru and get the full picture for yourself ,you may find it very profound?ok, so where is the scripture telling us that rape victims no longer have to marry their attacker?
that was out of left field. i don't think anyone wants faeces in their blood stream. What does this have to do with the topic?Who would like to have human faeces in their bloodstream giving a very large chance of serious infection anyway?
John condemns homosexuality? news to me. and Paul says that his writings are only his opinion, NOT the word of God.You will notice though,that Homosexuality is condemned in the New Testament by Paul and John who were both inspired to these Words by God.
I've read the Bible repeatedly. So, can you tell me where the passage repeling the comand for a rape victim to marry her attacker is?Why dont you read the Bible thru and get the full picture for yourself ,you may find it very profound?
1.Well you didnt answer the question,Would you want to have faeces in your bloodstream?that was out of left field. i don't think anyone wants faeces in their blood stream. What does this have to do with the topic?
John condemns homosexuality? news to me. and Paul says that his writings are only his opinion, NOT the word of God. I've read the Bible repeatedly. So, can you tell me where the passage repeling the comand for a rape victim to marry her attacker is?
OK, sure, i don't want faeces in my bloodstream, but I'll ask again, what has this got to do with anything?1.Well you didnt answer the question,Would you want to have faeces in your bloodstream?
2,1 Cor6:9 written by Paul but inspired by God clearly states that Homosexuals will not inherit the kingdom of God.
Rev 22:15 written by John but inspired by God clearly states that the sexualy immoral will not enter through the gates of heaven.
And it is ok to read the Bible but another thing to interpret scripture uninspired by the Holy spirit.
No it doesn't. Your translation is flawed. Nor do I believe that Paul's writings count as "word of God"... even if they ARE inspired by God.2,1 Cor6:9 written by Paul but inspired by God clearly states that Homosexuals will not inherit the kingdom of God.
well thats fine... but there is nothing intrinsically immoral about homosexuals, so that passage clearly isn't refering to homosexuals as a groupRev 22:15 written by John but inspired by God clearly states that the sexualy immoral will not enter through the gates of heaven.
It is ones own choice to decide what is immoral or not.OK, sure, i don't want faeces in my bloodstream, but I'll ask again, what has this got to do with anything?No it doesn't. Your translation is flawed. Nor do I believe that Paul's writings count as "word of God"... even if they ARE inspired by God.well thats fine... but there is nothing intrinsically immoral about homosexuals, so that passage clearly isn't refering to homosexuals as a group
Catamites had very strict social mores they had to adhere to, though. The relationship bes for the raising and development of a man in Roman society, and the younger performed "favors" as part of "earning his keep". Not the same as a male prostitute in today's sense, this bes an accepted part of the upbringing and training of regular heterosexual males in Roman society, in particular the privileged classes as the Catamite would enjoy personal instruction in academic and cultural fields by the man who took this position in his life. ANY Catamite what developed a liking for the homosexual favors he bes required to perform as a result would bes viewed disparagingly in that society, as one who had been warped or corrupted. Catamite training only lasted a designated period; then the young men bes expected to marry and rear families as regular heterosexual males. The mentor in a classic pederastic relationship, likewise, bes disparaged by society if he partook too strongly in unnatural affections for the boy.So I've spent some time studying the corinthians passage. I would like to know the pro-gay argument against my conclusion.
(Please note: I'm not quoting from a propaganda site, unless you count bible.org as one)
Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders
Here we have the issue of the definitions of the greek malakos and arsenokoites. malakos is translated here as male prostitutes and arsenokoites as homosexual offenders.
Malakos:
Reference rtSpch:adjectiveIn Greek:In NET:In AV:soft 3, effeminate 1Definition:1) soft, soft to the touch
2) metaph. in a bad sense
2a) effeminate
2a1) of a catamite
2a2) of a boy kept for homosexual relations with a man
2a3) of a male who submits his body to unnatural lewdness
2a4) of a male prostitute of uncertain affinity; soft, i.e. fine (clothing); figuratively, a
catamite:-effeminate, soft.
So this basically tells me that this word means effeminate. In this context, it is meant as the "female"/submissive one of the same-sex sexual action.
Er yes I have constantly been referring to the Greek. I have also frequently referred to both sides of the argument, and frequently to the pro-gay theology of the likes of Boswell etc. So you may be out of your league.Does anyone on here actually own and can read a Greek New Testament besides Moriah?![]()
phinehas2 said:Yet the very basis of his argument was flawed as arsenokoites is used in conjuction with pornos in 1 Tim 1, which does on the same basis rule out all same-sex.
This pretty much covers paedophilia:Jesus never mentions same sex sex.
Ever.
Paedophilia goes against other things Jesus taught. Homosexuality does not.
That bes why it bes important to just forego attempting to judge others' motives (we cannot) and just stick to pure academics. What translation bes most consistent with established use of the word wherever it bes found in ancient literature and comprehending the contexts in which it bes used. Yes? Motive need never even enter it if we stick to pure academics. Can you establish your points above without needing to invoke your speculations on others' motives? Because it thinks you make interesting points but it will need a better basis for consideration than that -- a purely academic one please.Er yes I have constantly been referring to the Greek. I have also frequently referred to both sides of the argument, and frequently to the pro-gay theology of the likes of Boswell etc. So you may be out of your league.
Malakos is tricky to translate but Boswell was keen to show that its use with arsenokoites did not condemn all homosexuality, and no wonder he was a homosexual. Yet the very basis of his argument was flawed as arsenokoites is used in conjuction with pornos in 1 Tim 1, which does on the same basis rule out all same-sex.
The problem is that those who can see God's purpose is man and woman and can see Boswell's argument fails. Then can also subsequently see that the temple prostitution argument fails. But crucially they can also note that those who propose these two views arent interested in arguing them out, but rather just in proving same-sex sex is ok. So their motivation is not to seek the true revelation of God but to seek to prove their own views.
Er yes I have constantly been referring to the Greek. I have also frequently referred to both sides of the argument, and frequently to the pro-gay theology of the likes of Boswell etc. So you may be out of your league.
Malakos is tricky to translate but Boswell was keen to show that its use with arsenokoites did not condemn all homosexuality, and no wonder he was a homosexual. Yet the very basis of his argument was flawed as arsenokoites is used in conjuction with pornos in 1 Tim 1, which does on the same basis rule out all same-sex.
The problem is that those who can see God's purpose is man and woman and can see Boswell's argument fails. Then can also subsequently see that the temple prostitution argument fails. But crucially they can also note that those who propose these two views arent interested in arguing them out, but rather just in proving same-sex sex is ok. So their motivation is not to seek the true revelation of God but to seek to prove their own views.
Yes you can, Paul has done it. The problem for you is that in Matthew 19 Jesus affirms God’s creation purpose for man and woman in faithful union and the fornication (pornos) and adultery (miochos) break that. So that rules out all sex outside marriage. In 1 Cor 6:9 this is affirmed once again. When you say it doesn’t rule out all same-sex sex, yes of course it does. Imagine if a paedophile took the same approach and said all paedophilia must therefore be ok as the verse doesn’t even mention paedophilia at all.You cannot use 2 separate words, and put them together to somehow "rule out all same sex".
So you agree with me, good.That bes why it bes important to just forego attempting to judge others' motives (we cannot) and just stick to pure academics.
Can you address what Boswell proposed? A good discussion for both sides of the argument can be found with the discussions between Gagnon and Wink, which I recommend. My view here is that Wink takes many gay theology arguments, incorporating Boswells and Gagnons is the consistent reason and witness why they are all flawed.What translation bes most consistent with established use of the word wherever it bes found in ancient literature and comprehending the contexts in which it bes used. Yes? Motive need never even enter it if we stick to pure academics. Can you establish your points above without needing to invoke your speculations on others' motives? Because it thinks you make interesting points but it will need a better basis for consideration than that -- a purely academic one please.
For the Nth time... HOMOSEXUAL SEX IS NOT ABOUT PROCREATIONAs far as the OT goes, there is no tradition in Jewish culture for marrying gays, and gay-sex has been a taboo throughout Jewish history. Jews know their own history and it can be researched through the University of Jerusalem archives.
Secondly, people that claim God made them "gay" contradict the fact that God equipped gays to procreate with the opposite sex. If God really made them to function with the same-sex, then this just doesn't make any sense.