Deuteronomy 24:16: "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin."
These are God's words, yet the children of Sodom and Gomorrah died for their father's sins (Genesis 13; they wanted to rape Lot's guests), as did the children of the Amalekites (1 Samuel 15: 3; their ancestors were enemies of Israelites), to cite just a few cases.
The difference seems to be one of race. There were different rules for Hebrew slaves and non-Hebrew slaves (the former being set free after 6 years, the latter being slaves for life), so it seems that there is a very strong racial bias in the Old Testament. How does this translate into modern Christian morality? Different rules for different nations or faiths? It doesn't seem to make any sense, but a lot of Christians insist that Old Testament morality is relevant today.
These are God's words, yet the children of Sodom and Gomorrah died for their father's sins (Genesis 13; they wanted to rape Lot's guests), as did the children of the Amalekites (1 Samuel 15: 3; their ancestors were enemies of Israelites), to cite just a few cases.
The difference seems to be one of race. There were different rules for Hebrew slaves and non-Hebrew slaves (the former being set free after 6 years, the latter being slaves for life), so it seems that there is a very strong racial bias in the Old Testament. How does this translate into modern Christian morality? Different rules for different nations or faiths? It doesn't seem to make any sense, but a lot of Christians insist that Old Testament morality is relevant today.
I guess I wasn't spiritually elightened. How long was John on that island by himself when he wrote that book, anyways? I'm not saying it couldn't be true, but I'm just taking into account the "Castaway" syndrome.