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Daniel Marsh

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I ran across this line of thinking in the quote below, is it vaild? why or why not?

A viable marriage is a contract of mutual support, love and respect:

However, each one of you also must love his wife as he loves himself, and the wife must respect her husband. (NIV, Ephesians 5:33)

If anyone does not provide for his relatives, and especially for his immediate family, he has denied the faith and is worse than an unbeliever. (NIV, 1 Timothy 5:8)

If an unbeliever abandons the marriage, the other partner is freed from the marriage bond (1 Corinthians 7:15).

This has puzzled me, maybe someone can shed light on it.

1 Corinthians 6:16

Don’t you know that anyone who is joined to someone who is sleeping around is one body with that person? The scripture says, The two will become one flesh.

Are these two or more in 1 Corinthians 6:16 considered to be married in God's eyes? If one legally marries someone else after events in 1 Corinthians 6:16, what then is their position? Growing up I was aware of fellow Christians who sleep around and later got married. Speaking in general on the text, what is their position?
 

Daniel Marsh

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is beating on her and contrary to Eph 5, were they really joined together by God in the first place?

I am not sure, would have Jesus dealt with the Woman at the Well give any insight to this topic?
 
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Cat Loaf You

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I think if you take her to your place as in Jewish traditional mariage and you live there, then you become one flesh before God with having sex , you don't need goverment paper to do that .

But if you just meet with her once to have sex after party then you simply defile yourself with harlot .

Some people say that when you become born again since you are new creature it's like you became virgin again so you can marry but i'm not sure about this ...

There would be no need for reasoning like this if everybody just kept sex untill mariage but it's really hard in this apostate world .


Edit) There was prophet of God who was told to marry harlot so it's possible to be in mariage even tho girl had sex multiple times and is virgin no more .
 
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JIMINZ

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CAT LOAF YOU

You said
There was prophet of God who was told to marry harlot so it's possible to be in mariage even tho girl had sex multiple times and is virgin no more .


This is the place you were speaking of.


Hos 3:1-5

1) Then said the LORD unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of her friend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the LORD toward the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine.
2) So I bought her to me for fifteen pieces of silver, and for an homer of barley, and an half homer of barley:
3) And I said unto her, Thou shalt abide for me many days; thou shalt not play the harlot, and thou shalt not be for another man: so will I also be for thee.
4 For the children of Israel shall abide many days without a king, and without a prince, and without a sacrifice, and without an image, and without an ephod, and without teraphim:
5) Afterward shall the children of Israel return, and seek the LORD their God, and David their king; and shall fear the LORD and his goodness in the latter days.

You need to understand, this was before Christ, and the New Covenant.

They were not under the same standards we are today.
 
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JIMINZ

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For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh....Gen. 2:24
.
Regardless of whether it is a Civil Contract, or it is a Spiritual union, it is always a Spiritual Principal......."They shall become one flesh."

Someone who sleeps around, then gets Married is in effect, taking every sexual partner into bed with their Spouse.

What is the incidence of Divorce in the US?...Just something to think about.
 
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A71

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I think you have absolutely hit the nail on the head.

I ran across this line of thinking in the quote below, is it vaild? why or why not?



This has puzzled me, maybe someone can shed light on it.

1 Corinthians 6:16

Don’t you know that anyone who is joined to someone who is sleeping around is one body with that person? The scripture says, The two will become one flesh.

Are these two or more in 1 Corinthians 6:16 considered to be married in God's eyes? If one legally marries someone else after events in 1 Corinthians 6:16, what then is their position? Growing up I was aware of fellow Christians who sleep around and later got married. Speaking in general on the text, what is their position?
 
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A71

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I humbly applaud you Daniel, well done for using Scripture properly to end this absurd debate.

As Timothy says, if anyone does not take care of, (Greek- pronoeo), his or her nearest and dearest, then he is worse than an unbeliever.

So put quite simple, a violent partner is worse than an unbeliever. In these circumstances it is quite obvious that the abused party has every Biblical right to annul the marriage, and of course remarry with impunity.
 
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A71

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It is absolutely crazy for the Church to suggest battered partners uphold a relationship that God will sever in the next life. Madness

45 “Who then is a faithful and wise servant, whom his master made ruler over his household, to give them food in due season? 46 Blessed is that servant whom his master, when he comes, will find so doing. 47 Assuredly, I say to you that he will make him ruler over all his goods. 48 But if that evil servant says in his heart, ‘My master is delaying his coming,’ 49 and begins to beat his fellow servants, and to eat and drink with the drunkards, 50 the master of that servant will come on a day when he is not looking for him and at an hour that he is not aware of, 51 and will cut him in two and appoint him his portion with the hypocrites. There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
 
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Boaz308

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is beating on her and contrary to Eph 5, were they really joined together by God in the first place?

I am not sure, would have Jesus dealt with the Woman at the Well give any insight to this topic?
Unless GOD is a LIAR then when you get married to your first spouse you are joined together and made one flesh. That is for sure, after that it seems a little unclear.
 
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Boaz308

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CAT LOAF YOU

You said
There was prophet of God who was told to marry harlot so it's possible to be in mariage even tho girl had sex multiple times and is virgin no more .


This is the place you were speaking of.


Hos 3:1-5

1) Then said the LORD unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of her friend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the LORD toward the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine.
2) So I bought her to me for fifteen pieces of silver, and for an homer of barley, and an half homer of barley:
3) And I said unto her, Thou shalt abide for me many days; thou shalt not play the harlot, and thou shalt not be for another man: so will I also be for thee.
4 For the children of Israel shall abide many days without a king, and without a prince, and without a sacrifice, and without an image, and without an ephod, and without teraphim:
5) Afterward shall the children of Israel return, and seek the LORD their God, and David their king; and shall fear the LORD and his goodness in the latter days.

You need to understand, this was before Christ, and the New Covenant.

They were not under the same standards we are today.
God is the same yesterday today and forever, his "Standards" = "The nature of God" is unchanging.
 
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A71

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Couldn't be further from the truth, not biblical and claiming it as such = adding words to the bible. Not ever a good idea to proclaim your heretical beliefs. Keep them to yourself, Why are you even on a christian forum?
You are impetuous and a fool to make such unfounded and libellous accusations. You also are ignorant. God even practices divorce.

Jeremiah 3:8 (NKJV)
8 Then I saw that for all the causes for which backsliding Israel had committed adultery, I had put her away and given her a certificate of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah did not fear, but went and played the harlot also.
 
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