Questions on Acts

[jcright]

Hi guys!

I've been reading Acts and I had a few questions that I thought I would post here in the hopes that someone could help me with the answers. Please note, I'm using NIV.

Acts 2:38-39
38Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off--for all whom the Lord our God will call."

Q1: This passage seems to indicate that we can only receive the gift of the Holy Spirit if we first repent and become baptized. Acts 8:15-17 seems to back this up: "15When they arrived, they prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit, 16because the Holy Spirit had not yet come upon any of them; they had simply been baptized into[1] the name of the Lord Jesus. 17Then Peter and John placed their hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit."

Acts 1:5 also seems to support this"5For John baptized with[1] water, but in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.""


However...Acts 10:47 "47Then Peter said, "Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have."" seems to contradict the first set of vs's.

Q2: I thought Levites couldn't own land; see Numbers 18:20-21.

However, in Acts 4:36-37, we have the following statement:
36Joseph, a Levite from Cyprus, whom the apostles called Barnabas (which means Son of Encouragement), 37sold a field he owned and brought the money and put it at the apostles' feet.

Q3: Based on Exodus 4:10, "10 Moses said to the LORD , "O Lord, I have never been eloquent, neither in the past nor since you have spoken to your servant. I am slow of speech and tongue."", we know that Moses had some kind of problem speaking...however, Acts 7:22 says "22Moses was educated in all the wisdom of the Egyptians and was powerful in speech and action."

Perhaps I'm interpreting "Powerfull" incorrectly. My only thought is that maybe it's the meaning of the words that were powerful instead of the speaker.

Q4: When and where did Moses have his two sons??? Acts 7:29 "29When Moses heard this, he fled to Midian, where he settled as a foreigner and had two sons."

When we look at Ex 4:25, we see something different: 25 But Zipporah took a flint knife, cut off her son's foreskin and touched {Moses'} feet with it. [1] "Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me," she said. This passage implies that there is only one son, not two. My only thought is that Moses only took one son and left the other behind.

I am not inclined to believe that the scriptures can contradict themselves, however, I'm currently at a loss for answers. I'd be interested in hearing anyone's opinion...please back it up with scripture.

Thanks!

 

[eldermike]

If I can, I'll come back and do a better job of adressing these. But for this post let me ask you to read these passages again with the idea that Peter is talking about the power of the Holy Spirit because He knows and says that God has already called them. He's telling them that sin is keeping them from the empowerment of indewlling of the holy Spirit.

I can't do a proper responce today but hopfully others will or I can come back to it tonight.

God Bless,
Mike

 

[FreeinChrist]

Q2: I thought Levites couldn't own land; see Numbers 18:20-21.

However, in Acts 4:36-37, we have the following statement:
36Joseph, a Levite from Cyprus, whom the apostles called Barnabas (which means Son of Encouragement), 37sold a field he owned and brought the money and put it at the apostles' feet.

Num 18:19 "All the offerings of the holy {gifts,} which the sons of Israel offer to the LORD, I have given to you and your sons and your daughters with you, as a perpetual allotment. It is an everlasting covenant of salt before the LORD to you and your descendants with you."Num 18:20 Then the LORD said to Aaron, "You shall have no inheritance in their land nor own any portion among them; I am your portion and your inheritance among the sons of Israel.Num 18:21 "To the sons of Levi, behold, I have given all the tithe in Israel for an inheritance, in return for their service which they perform, the service of the tent of meeting.Num 18:22 "The sons of Israel shall not come near the tent of meeting again, or they will bear sin and die.Num 18:23 "Only the Levites shall perform the service of the tent of meeting, and they shall bear their iniquity; it shall be a perpetual statute throughout your generations, and among the sons of Israel they shall have no inheritance.


A Levite could own a piece of land. What Numbers 18 referred to was the dividing of the land between the tribes as an inheritance. The Levites did not get a 1/12th of the land of Israel as an 'inheritance' from God.

Q3: Based on Exodus 4:10, "10 Moses said to the LORD , "O Lord, I have never been eloquent, neither in the past nor since you have spoken to your servant. I am slow of speech and tongue."", we know that Moses had some kind of problem speaking...however, Acts 7:22 says "22Moses was educated in all the wisdom of the Egyptians and was powerful in speech and action."

Perhaps I'm interpreting "Powerfull" incorrectly. My only thought is that maybe it's the meaning of the words that were powerful instead of the speaker.

Yes, I beleive it is the words that he spoke had power, as well as the actions.

Q4: When and where did Moses have his two sons??? Acts 7:29 "29When Moses heard this, he fled to Midian, where he settled as a foreigner and had two sons."

When we look at Ex 4:25, we see something different: 25 But Zipporah took a flint knife, cut off her son's foreskin and touched {Moses'} feet with it. [1] "Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me," she said. This passage implies that there is only one son, not two. My only thought is that Moses only took one son and left the other behind.

See Exodus 18. Moses and Zipporah had 2 sons - Gershom and Eliezer.
Now go back earlier in Exodus 4 to this:
Exd 4:19 Now the LORD said to Moses in Midian, "Go back to Egypt, for all the men who were seeking your life are dead."Exd 4:20 So Moses took his wife and his sons and mounted them on a donkey, and returned to the land of Egypt. Moses also took the staff of God in his hand.


so there isn't a discrepancy.

 

[FreeinChrist]

Acts 2:38-39
38Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off--for all whom the Lord our God will call."

Q1: This passage seems to indicate that we can only receive the gift of the Holy Spirit if we first repent and become baptized. Acts 8:15-17 seems to back this up: "15When they arrived, they prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit, 16because the Holy Spirit had not yet come upon any of them; they had simply been baptized into[1] the name of the Lord Jesus. 17Then Peter and John placed their hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit."

Acts 1:5 also seems to support this"5For John baptized with[1] water, but in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.""


However...Acts 10:47 "47Then Peter said, "Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have."" seems to contradict the first set of vs's.

You need to consider the context. Acts 1 is prior to the Day of Pentecost and Acts is on the Day of Pentecost - the first time the Holy Spirit came as the comforter to indwell beleivers. Even the disciples received the Holy Spirit that day. By the time we get to Acts 10, though, you start to see that the Holy Spirit comes with belief in Christ, and not a separate event.
Water baptism was an outward identifcation with someone or something - those baptized by John were "baptized unto John". Those that went with Moses through the Red Sea were "baptized unto Moses". What Peter is referring to in Acts 2 is a water baptism as a public identification with Christ.

I don't know if this helps, but I think if you look at the context of the verses, it is easier to understand.

 

[TwinCrier]

If you repent of sin and accept Christ, but refuse to get baptised, then aren't you sinning by rebellion? It would be hard to believe someone is truly saved if their first act as a Christian is disobedence.

 

[Andyman_1970]

If you repent of sin and accept Christ, but refuse to get baptised, .

I don't think the issue is with Acts 2:38 is rebellion. Many equate this passage mistakenly to imply that the act of baptism somehow effects the fogiveness of "washing away" of sins. There is however very little conclusive Biblical evidence that water baptism actually "does" something (i.e. literally saves/forgives/washes sins away).

I know most likely I am preaching to the choir here in the Baptist forum.

 

[@@Paul@@]

Questions on Acts

Hi guys!

I've been reading Acts and I had a few questions that I thought I would post here in the hopes that someone could help me with the answers. Please note, I'm using NIV.

Acts 2:38-39
38Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off--for all whom the Lord our God will call."

Q1: This passage seems to indicate that we can only receive the gift of the Holy Spirit if we first repent and become baptized. Acts 8:15-17 seems to back this up: "15When they arrived, they prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit, 16because the Holy Spirit had not yet come upon any of them; they had simply been baptized into[1] the name of the Lord Jesus. 17Then Peter and John placed their hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit."

I will say the sins talked about during Acts were “national” sins. The gospel of the Kingdom was being preached sense John the Baptist came on the scene… His, was a message of repentance. Just like Jesus’ message, and just like the one preached in Acts by Peter…
What “sins” did Israel commit prior to Acts that they might need to repent from? What exactly was God’s plan for Israel?

Now, the “promise” of the Spirit was yet another OT prophesy being fulfilled… There was one condition prior to Acts for Israel, repent and believe for the remission of sins. This “belief” was on the Messiah and the coming messianic kingdom… What was the reason for the gifting of the Spirit?

Act 1:8 But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.​

So they (Israel) could be proper witnesses of the kingdom, this “power” was given and the signs followed.

Mar 16:20 And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen.​

Today we are simply “sealed” with the HS the moment we believe.

Eph 1:13 In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,
Eph 1:14 Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.​

In a symbolic way you do need to be baptized and repent to receive the HS. There is ONE baptism which takes place AT salvation, by which the Old man is buried WITH Christ and the NEW Man is raised, and seated with Him in the heavenlies. We DO receive this through repentance.

Acts 1:5 also seems to support this"5For John baptized with[1] water, but in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.""
However...Acts 10:47 "47Then Peter said, "Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have."" seems to contradict the first set of vs's.

John baptism was a baptism of repentance ON the person to come after him (Jesus Christ)… In acts 10 Cornelius received the HS at the moment he believed… He was a Gentile (and a proselyte). There is NO contradiction because the “promise” of power to witness was only given to Israel, which required baptism and repentance as you noted…

Q2: I thought Levites couldn't own land; see Numbers 18:20-21.
However, in Acts 4:36-37, we have the following statement:
36Joseph, a Levite from Cyprus, whom the apostles called Barnabas (which means Son of Encouragement), 37sold a field he owned and brought the money and put it at the apostles' feet.

Weird,, I would say (this is a BIG assumption). Priests (who previously came from the tribe of Levi) could not own land. One to ponder.

Q3: Based on Exodus 4:10, "10 Moses said to the LORD , "O Lord, I have never been eloquent, neither in the past nor since you have spoken to your servant. I am slow of speech and tongue."", we know that Moses had some kind of problem speaking...however, Acts 7:22 says "22Moses was educated in all the wisdom of the Egyptians and was powerful in speech and action."
Perhaps I'm interpreting "Powerfull" incorrectly. My only thought is that maybe it's the meaning of the words that were powerful instead of the speaker.

We tend to speak wisely and with great confidence about that which we are educated on. I would say that’s all it meant. A powerfull speaker would also be one who REALLY knows what he’s talking about.

Q4: When and where did Moses have his two sons??? Acts 7:29 "29When Moses heard this, he fled to Midian, where he settled as a foreigner and had two sons."
When we look at Ex 4:25, we see something different: 25 But Zipporah took a flint knife, cut off her son's foreskin and touched {Moses'} feet with it. [1] "Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me," she said. This passage implies that there is only one son, not two. My only thought is that Moses only took one son and left the other behind.
I am not inclined to believe that the scriptures can contradict themselves, however, I'm currently at a loss for answers. I'd be interested in hearing anyone's opinion...please back it up with scripture.
Thanks!

where he begat two sons; whose names were Gershom and Eliezer, having married Zipporah, the daughter of Jethro, Exo_18:2.​

Hope that helps!!

 

[jcright]

"Exd 4:20 So Moses took his wife and his sons and mounted them on a donkey, and returned to the land of Egypt. Moses also took the staff of God in his hand.


so there isn't a discrepancy.

Oops! How'd I miss that??? I think I need to get online referencing for home.

If you repent of sin and accept Christ, but refuse to get baptised, then aren't you sinning by rebellion? It would be hard to believe someone is truly saved if their first act as a Christian is disobedence.

Don't know...but any act of disobedience would be a sin and as far as I know "all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God" Rom 3:23. I think I might be missing the point of your comment. Could you please clarify?