• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

Questions about purgatory

Status
Not open for further replies.

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
Why isn't the cross enough to sanctify us? Why do we need purgatory, if it even exists since we haven't proven that yet, to sanctify us? Isn't what Jesus did for us enough to fully cleanse us and make us holy? It's true that nothing holy will enter the Kingdom. However, Jesus paid our debt in full when he shed His blood. Aren't we fools to assume that we aren't completely sanctified?
No, we are fools to assume that we ARE completely sanctified.

If we were completely sanctified, then what is the purpose or need of working out our own salvation in fear and trembling as we are COMMANDED by God.

What is the need for working out our own salvation in fear and trembling if we are completely sanctified already?

If we are completely sanctified already, then that means our salvation is assured, so what is there to work out?

Was Paul in error to command us thus? That would mean that the scriptures are in error . . . so you are now in a quandry with your theology, for it is self contradictory.

How are you going to resolve this very real and serious problem in your theology about salvation?


Who are we to say something is unholy that God has made holy? If we are saved and we transgress, aren't we to die to ourself daily as Paul tells us?
What happens if we sin a sin not unto death so we have not left the friendship of God, yet do not die to ourselves in this matter?

Is God going to allow us into heaven with ANY sin on our souls?

Is God going to provide a way to purify such sins after death?

Or is He going to send us to hell, even though we died in His friendship?

You have a very serious quandry here to resolve.


Nobody said in the bible that it can be done after death. But yet this is what the church teaches. Why does the church teach that which is not biblical?

Why don't you get yourself the FULL bible and use that. . it is there. :)
 
Upvote 0

fleethefire

Junior Member
Feb 28, 2009
41
2
✟22,673.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
That's because your bible is an abridged version deliberately made so to remove the books where some of the most explicit passsage occur.

We still use the same bible Jesus and the first Christians used. UNabridged.

You are aware that Jesus and His disciples did not have the same bible we have today? They had the Torah, and the Tenach.

Do you use a bible that contains the New Testament? If you do you aren't using the same "bible" that Jesus used.
 
Upvote 0

Athanasias

Regular Member
Jan 24, 2008
5,788
1,036
St. Louis
✟54,560.00
Country
United States
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Hi everyone! I have some questions about Catholicism. In this post, I'm specifically asking about purgatory. I'm hoping some of you can shed some light on the topic for me. I grew up Catholic and was taught that purgatory was where many of us will go after we die. However, in my study of the Scriptures, I have never been able to find any verses in context of the topic to affirm this belief. In fact, it appears to me that purgatory contradicts scripture. I don't want to believe that is true. So hopefully you all can help. It's been difficult for me to continue with my beliefs of Catholic doctrine when they don't seem to be lining up with Scripture. So I'm really hoping some of you can mentor me and answer some questions. I definitely don't want to be misled. Please bare with me as this is kind of long. Hope you all understand. I'm just confused about this and I have a lot of questions!

Just to make sure we're on the same page, one belief that tends to be universal throughout Catholicism and many "Protestant" religions is that the Bible is the infallible and inerrant word of God. The Scriptures do claim to be the Word of God not only in a general sense, but specifically. For example, 2 Timothy 3:16 tells us that the very words of the Bible were "God breathed" which is the literal translation of the Greek word often translated as "inspired". 2 Peter 1:21 says that holy men of God were carried along by the Holy Spirit, writing down the very words and thoughts that God wanted them to record. God used men to communicate His Word and kept this communication free from error. So if the bible is as it claims to be, which is the actual and inspired Word of God, does it make mistakes? My belief is that it does not. Is this what Catholics believe as well? I'm assuming so, because I recall learning this in Catholic school growing up.

Second, I have always been taught that we cannot use Scripture against Scripture and that we need to harmonize what we read to make one central truth. Psalm 119:160 tells us "The Sum of Your word is truth, And every one of your righteous ordinances is everlasting." Again, I ask is this the same belief throughout Catholicism?

Third, I was taught that we cannot twist Scripture and take it out of context in order to back up man made doctrine. Here are some scriptures that refer to this and I'm wondering if Catholics are in agreement? Deuteronomy 4:1-2 says "Hear now, O Israel, the decrees and laws I am about to teach you. Follow them so that you may live and may go in and take possession of the land that the LORD, the God of your fathers, is giving you. Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you".
Deuteronomy 12:32 says "See that you do all I command you; do not add to it or take away from it".
Proverbs 30:6 says "Do not add to his words, or he will rebuke you and prove you a liar".
Matt 15:6-9 says "Thus you nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition. You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you: ”‘These people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. They worship me in vain; their teachings are but rules taught by men.’”
1 Cor 4:6 "Now, brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us the meaning of the saying, "Do not go beyond what is written."
Rev 20:18-19 "I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book. And if anyone takes words away from this book of prophecy, God will take away from him his share in the tree of life and in the holy city, which are described in this book."

I saw on another thread a link to a website which gave a definition of purgatory. Is this how you all would define purgatory?
Purgatory is defined as a place or condition of temporal punishment for those who, departing this life in God's grace, are not entirely free from venial faults, or have not fully paid the satisfaction due to their transgressions. In other words, in Catholic theology Purgatory is a place that a Christian’s soul goes to after death to be cleansed of the sins that had not been fully satisfied during life. Is this doctrine of Purgatory in agreement with the Bible?

I question this because according to Catholic Doctrine, purgatory was drawn up in the Council of Florence and Council of Trent. In other words, man made. Is this correct? I can't seem to find any reference to it in Scripture. I read the Scriptures referenced in the other thread, and I could not see the correlation of purgatory to them. If they are out of context, then they are not relevant to this topic. I recall Matthew 15:6-9 when I say this.

The bible tells us that Jesus died to pay the penalty for all of our sins. Romans 5:8 says "But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." Isaiah 53:5 says “But He was pierced for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was upon Him, and by His wounds we are healed.” Jesus suffered for our sins so that we could be delivered from suffering. If we say that we have to suffer for our sins, isn't that like saying that Jesus’ death and resurrection was not sufficient? To say that we have to atone for our sins by cleansing in Purgatory, isn't that like saying the atoning sacrifice of Jesus was not sufficient? 1 John 2:2 says "and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world." Isn't the idea that we have to suffer for our sins after death a contradiction to everything the Bible tells us about salvation? Again, the bible is inerrant and the bible does not contradict itself, correct? So why does Catholic doctrine seem to contradict the bible? I'm just not seeing the harmony here and would really appreciate the insight.

While trying to find purgatory referenced in the Bible, I found that the primary Scriptural passage that many Catholics use in support of Purgatory is 1 Corinthians 3:15 which says, “If it is burned up, he will suffer loss; he himself will be saved, but only as one escaping through the flames.” Isn't this passage and context of 1 Corinthians 3:12-15 just an illustration of things going through fire as a description of our works as believers being judged? I mean, if our works are of good quality such as “gold, sliver, and costly stones,” then they will pass through the fire unharmed and we will be rewarded for them. If our works are of poor quality such as “wood, hay, and straw,” then they will be consumed by the fire and there won't be a reward. The passage doesn't say that the believers pass through the fire, but rather that the believer’s works pass through the fire. Isn't that correct? 1 Corinthians 3:15 refers to the believer escaping through the flames, not being cleansed or atoned by the flames. To use this to affirm purgatory, isn't that taking it out of context and not a depiction of purgatory? I just don't see Purgatory mentioned in the bible. It sounds like this scripture refers to works as measures for reward, not as a means to salvation. I would love to find scripture to back up purgatory because it is a comforting thought if it's true. But please, if you reference any Scripture to support purgatory, please carefully read the whole chapter and study the context in which it's used. I just want to make sure it's contextual so I can understand this better.
If we believe in purgatory, aren't we simply misunderstanding Jesus' sacrifice? Wasn't Christ's once for all sacrifice absolutely and perfectly sufficient? Hebrews 7:27 says "who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself". How can meritorious works contribute to salvation? Does Jesus’ sacrifice have a need of additional contribution? Ephesians 2:8-9. says "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast." Do we need a man made up place called purgatory? Because of Jesus' sacrifice, aren't we already cleansed, declared righteous, forgiven, redeemed, reconciled, and sanctified? I can't see that there are any works that we can do to make amends for our sins, nor can I see how we can buy forgiveness or earn it in any other way. Isn't salvation is a gift? A free gift? Aren't we saved through faith? Isn't this man made doctrine contrary to what the bible tells us?

Isn't the idea of Purgatory and the doctrines associated with it such as praying for the dead, indulgences, meritorious works on behalf of the dead, etc., all failing to recognize that Jesus’ death and resurrection was and is sufficient to pay the price for everyone of our sins? Isn't that all we need? Jesus was God incarnate as we see in John 1:1 and John 1:14 and He paid the price for our sins. Paid in full! Because He died for our sins, He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins. Isn't this true? To say that Jesus’ sacrifice was just for the atoning of original sin, or sins committed before salvation, isn't that an outright attack on the person and work of Jesus? If we say we have to pay for, atone for, or suffer because of our sins, isn't that like saying that Jesus’ death was not a perfect and complete sacrifice? Why would we think Jesus' death was an insufficient sacrifice? On the contrary, isn't what Jesus did for us all we need to be saved? Is seems Scripture tells us we just need to believe and be baptized.

I've read in the bible that after death is when we will be "away from the body and at home with the Lord" 2 Corinthians 5:6-8 and Philippians 1:23. It doesn't say away from the body, in Purgatory with the cleansing fire. If that was what was meant, wouldn't the bible have said that? It is inerrant afterall, right? According to Scripture, after death, we are immediately in the presence of the Lord because of Christ's perfect and complete sacrifice. We're fully cleansed from sin and do not need anyone to pray for us nor can we do anything to earn our way to heaven from a man made concept of purgatory, isn't that correct according to scripture? After we die, it's too late, isn't it? Game over. We don't get a second chance. Why do we believe a man made doctrine that contradicts the bible? By believing this doctrine, aren't we risking our eternity? This is eternity for crying out loud! FOREVER! Without end. If these things doctrine is teaching us are true, shouldn't they be in the bible and surely they would not contradict what scripture says? I think we need to take heed and carefully study what we are taught and make sure that it is in harmony with the inerrant Word of God. The bible warns us not to nullify the word of God for the sake of tradition; The teachings which are rules taught by men. I don't know, but it seems to me that purgatory is one example of this. I'd love if someone can help me out here and prove to me otherwise. I'd hate to think what I've been taught all these years is inaccurate.

Since I mentioned venial sin above, I wanted to ask about that also briefly. The concept of mortal and venial sin seems to be misrepresentative of how God views sin as portrayed in the bible. Scripture states that God will be just and fair in His punishment of sin and on judgement day some sin will merit greater punishment than others Matthew 11:22 24; Luke 10:12, 14. However, all sin will be punished by God. Every one of us sin Romans 3:23. Just compensation for sin is eternal death Romans 6:23. I don't see where the Bible says that some sins are worthy of eternal death and some aren't. Don't any and all sins make us worthy of eternal separation from God? I just don't see how "venial sin" is biblical, and if it's not, there is no need for "purgatory", correct?

The bible tells us in "Revelation 18:4-5: "And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues. For her sins have reached unto heaven, and God hath remembered her iniquities." This verse just clings to me whenever I think of doctrine that appears to be contradictory to Scripture.

Sorry this has been so long. I just have a lot of questions and hopefully some of you can enlighten me. It is not my desire to sound preachy or to start a debate or anything like that. I'm just a confused Christian, looking for some insight. Thank you in advance for your time and answering my questions!

Have a Jesus filled day!

Howdy! I did a formal debate on the biblical basis for purgatory. It list the official Catholics sources on what the doctrine is and goes through several passages in the bible.

Here is the link: http://christianforums.com/showthread.php?t=7334575

A little known fact about purgatory that even many Catholics get wrong is that it is not now nor ever was officially taught by the Church that it is a place.(This comes out in my debate when quoting the Pope and Catechism). It is a state of final sanctification/purification.

God bless you!:liturgy:

In Jesus the King through Mary the Queen Mother,
Athanasais
 
Upvote 0

fleethefire

Junior Member
Feb 28, 2009
41
2
✟22,673.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
No, we don't have an enternal body when we enter heaven. We enter heaven separated from our body. We will not receive our body until the Resurrection . . .then our dead body will be raised incorruptable and we receive this transformed body back.

Jesus came to save us body and soul, not just soul

1 Cor. 15

42 So also is the resurrection of the dead It is sown a perishable body, it is raised an imperishable body;

44it is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.

Hebrew 4:12
"For the word of God is living and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart."

Humans are body, soul and spirit.
 
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
You are aware that Jesus and His disciples did not have the same bible we have today? They had the Torah, and the Tenach.

Do you use a bible that contains the New Testament? If you do you aren't using the same "bible" that Jesus used.

ummm . . . .. .

You are wrong. They had the Septuagint which included all the OT books that are found in the Catholic bible today. We use the SAME OT that Jesus used.

Why don't you?

The Apostles and writers of scripture for the Church gave us, and used the writings we now have in our NT.


 
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
1 Cor. 15

42 So also is the resurrection of the dead It is sown a perishable body, it is raised an imperishable body;

44it is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.

Hebrew 4:12
"For the word of God is living and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart."

Humans are body, soul and spirit.

Humans are body and soul. The words spirit and soul are used essentially interchangably in the NT.


The word spirit is used to designate the spiritual soul which differentiates our soul from that of animals, which have natural souls.

The word spirit is used sometimes to designate the higher faculties of the spiritual soul which interact with the spiritual realm from its lower faculties which interact with the physical world through the body.

So we are properly body and spirit, or body and soul. . 2 parts, not 3.
 
Upvote 0

Lady Bug

Thankful For My Confirmation
Site Supporter
Aug 23, 2007
23,043
11,612
✟996,450.00
Country
United States
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
ummm . . . .. .

You are wrong. They had the Septuagint which included all the OT books that are found in the Catholic bible today. We use the SAME OT that Jesus used.

Why don't you?

The Apostles and writers of scripture for the Church gave us, and used the writings we now have in our NT.
was there a different OT floating around that didn't have those books?

:confused::confused::confused:

NOT trying to cause anyone to stumble
 
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
was there a different OT floating around that didn't have those books?

:confused::confused::confused:

NOT trying to cause anyone to stumble

There were TWO Old Testaments in use by the Jews. .

The Hebrew OT which is what we see today in protestant bibles, and the Septuagint which was written in Greek.


The Hebrew version was used by a minority.

The Septuagint Greek verison was used by the majority as they didn't speak, read or write Hebrew. Greek was the language of the day for many Jews.

Jesusu and the Apostles and writers of the NT predominately used the Septuagint.

When the NT quotes or paraphrases or alludes to the OT, almost 90% of the time it is the Septuagint Greek version they use.

The Septuagint was the OT for the christians, not the Hebrew version. The Septuagint contained all the books we have in our OT . . .and it was very important as the Septuagint version of the OT has much more explicit references to Christ and the virgin birth, His passion, etc. In Isaiah in the Septuagint, it is clearly a virgin who will conceive. In the Hebrew version it is not so clear.

The OT was not closed at the time of Christ. The Jews did not try to do so until about around the beginning of the 2nd century, and then to stop christians from so effectively using the septuagint to make converts, and to stop the zealots from using the 7 books that are missing in protestant bibles from using Maccabbbees to justify their revolt against Rome which was threatening to cause the Romans to wipe the Jews off the face of the earth.

So, the turn to the Hebrew scriptures as the only OT was a very anit-Christian move.


The reason why the vast majority of quotes in the NT from the OT do not match the OT is that they are from the Septuagint. :)
 
Upvote 0

Amazing.Grace

Member
Mar 7, 2009
12
0
✟15,122.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
That's because your bible is an abridged version deliberately made so to remove the books where some of the most explicit passsage occur.

We still use the same bible Jesus and the first Christians used. UNabridged. :)

In this unabridged bible, there are to be found scriptures which make it very clear that there must be such a place or state.

Do you seriously believe you are using the same bible Jesus and the first Christians used? I mean, seriously?
 
Upvote 0

Amazing.Grace

Member
Mar 7, 2009
12
0
✟15,122.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Peter warns that no scripture is of any private interpretation.

You are aware that 2 Peter 1:20-21 refers to how the prophecy of the Scripture came about. That it was not the prophet's own interpretation, but it came moved by the Holy Spirit, spoken from God. So in other words, this scripture is not in reference to people privately interpreting the bible. Rather it means that Scripture is God breathed.

20Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. 21for no prophecy was ever made by an act of human will, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.

Please do not use Scripture out of context. I'm sure that offends many of us Christians as well as our Creator.
 
Upvote 0

Gwendolyn

back in black
Jan 28, 2005
12,340
1,647
Canada
✟20,680.00
Gender
Female
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Private
Why has this thread gone on for so long? It is beyond asking genuine questions. It is moving quickly into the realm of debate, which is against the FSGs.

No offense intended, but when discussion moves out of the sphere of trying to understand Catholic teaching, and into the sphere of accusations and apparent distaste, such a thread is not suited for any denominational forum... and so, not OBOB.
 
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
Do you seriously believe you are using the same bible Jesus and the first Christians used? I mean, seriously?

We are using the same OT that Jesus and the apostles used. :)

But you aren't.

You are using an OT that a small group of Jewish rabbis decided upon at the beginning of the 2nd century to try to hamstring Christians who used the Septuagint, the common OT of the Jews, to gain converts.

The Jews fought over this decision for 500 years . . . and the Ethiopian Jews never accepted it and still use the Septuagint today.
 
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
You are aware that 2 Peter 1:20-21 refers to how the prophecy of the Scripture came about. That it was not the prophet's own interpretation, but it came moved by the Holy Spirit, spoken from God. So in other words, this scripture is not in reference to people privately interpreting the bible. Rather it means that Scripture is God breathed.

20Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. 21for no prophecy was ever made by an act of human will, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.

Please do not use Scripture out of context. I'm sure that offends many of us Christians as well as our Creator.

Well, what do you think your taking scriptures out of context does, such as you did above?

How is it that you ignore the second part of this . . that interpretation is to be done in the same way it is given, by men moved by the holy Spirit?

Prophecy refers to any message from God. So it refers to Scirpture in its entirety.

It was given by the inspiritation of the Holy Spirit.

It must be, according to this same scripture, intepreted by through the inspiritation of the Holy Spirit.

We are not promised individually such inspiration of the Holy Spirit to interpret scripture.

Why do you ignore that Peter says no scripture is of any private interpretation?

Only those upon whom this same inspiration rests are qualified to interpret scripture.

And the only ones such inspiritation rests upon are those who were sent by the apostles and those they sent as the apostles were sent by Christ as Christ was sent by God the Father.

You and I are not sent in such a manner. We cannot claim infalliblity in our personal, private interpretation of scripture.

However, those sent as the apostles were sent, the bishops of the Church, collectively the Magesterium -the teaching office of the Church - ARE sent as the apostles were sent and the Holy Spirit works through them in council to protect the deposit of faith given by the apostles which means they alone infallibly interpret scripture.

Why do you ignore this and wrest the scriptures to make it appear they teach something else?
 
Upvote 0

JoabAnias

Steward of proportionality- I Cor 13:1, 1 Tim 3:15
Site Supporter
Nov 26, 2007
21,200
3,283
✟105,374.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
I'm the OP of this thread and I was actually wondering this myself. I did come here wanting genuine answers.

You were given genuine answers from scripture and tradition themselves.

Your mind is already predetermined to disagree.

Yet I've been given a hodge podge of confusion and no clear answers.

Then you haven't read the replies very well.

The way I've been treated in this thread has left me with a bad taste, sorry to say.

Like you didn't have a bad taste before you started it?

It's clear to me that purgatory was man instituted. I have not seen any clear evidence of it in scripture.

Thats because you don't see any evidence of a visibly instituted Church with ordained authority to interpret the implicit scripture. You do it only for yourself except for accepting the interpretations of new doctrines that only began to be formed in the 15th century in opposition to the visible Church created by Christ which is a complete contradiction.

I've found that the same men who instituted purgatory, were also proponents of selling of indulgences during their time. Martin Luther, who was Catholic at the time, opposed the selling of these indulgences. This sparked the protestant reformation.

The revolt of Luther reformed nothing in the Church. The Church is in a constant state of reform from within. You cannot revolt from something and think your absence has any effect on a reform. Thats ludicrous.

Furthermore Luther regretted his choices by the very outcome of them:

Luther says:

"As soon as our Gospel began . . . decency . . . and modesty were done away with, and everybody wished to be perfectly free to do whatever he liked." [Walch. V. 114]

"We deserve that our Evangelicals (the followers of the new Gospel) should now be seven times worse than they were before. Because after having learnt the Gospel, we steal, tell lies, deceive, eat and drink (to excess), and practice all manner of vices." [Walch. III. 2727]

"After one Devil (Popery) has been driven out of us, seven worse ones have come down upon us, as is the case with Princes, Lords, Nobles, Citizens and Peasants." [Walch. III. 2727]

Some good for the Catholic church must have come out of this, because a few years later, the selling of indulgences were outlawed.

Totally irrelevant of Luther.

Also, the bible was translated into the language of the people so that they could read it. Eventually, even Mass was given in the language of the people.

You think that because of the reformation Douay and Rheims composed the English version of the Bible?
Well in a sense they did. It was so that Catholics could get the whole Bible to read and not be shorted the epistles taken away by the revolt.

Did you know it was illegal to own a full Bible and punishable by death if caught with one?

So it seems some good did come from the Protestant reformation for the Catholic church.

Are you advocating doing an evil so that some good may come of it. God draws good from all things despite us. Jesus also teaches us to never do an evil. So that idea is extremely confused thinking and what Luther himself noticed as a result of others following his heresy.

It also seems that indulgences are now brought back for a donation to the church as of February this year. It seems the Catholic church has been wishy washy in the area of indulgences.

Nothing has changed. Your confusing praxis with dogma. They are often very different things. The things the Church teaches that are infallible are limited to de fide statements, dogma and solemn ex cathedra statements. Not devotions or sacramentals. Its wishy washyness that spurns dissent.

How can we know for sure that what they say concerning purgatory is indeed infallible? There must have been some fallibilty in the realm of indulgences if it were once ok, then not ok, then ok again. No?

No that was never the case. You can know from what Jesus said. What the Church binds on Earth is bound in heaven. This is extended to its dogma. In the development of doctrine there is much fallibility. Its how the process works as the subject is open to exploration and debate. The end result is a dogma that is irreversible. Protestantism can never result in a consensus. And if it does, it will in effect have reinvented the same wheel with the same conclusions but only 1500 years later and will have then realized the truth of the Catholic Church as the one true Church and foundation of Christ on this Earth. It often takes centuries to grasp what the Holy Spirit is revealing. Jesus promised this would continue until the end of time in the book of John.

If your interested to know what those dogma are read Dr. Ott who has them laid out here: http://www.theworkofgod.org/dogmas.htm

But please, ask yourself if your really interested in asking questions and learning or in just offending or protesting against our beliefs and wishing to debate them.

If its the later, then please don't waste our time.

You can do all the debating you like over in the General Theology forum.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

FreeinChrist

CF Advisory team
Christian Forums Staff
Site Advisor
Site Supporter
Jul 2, 2003
152,131
19,760
USA
✟2,070,088.00
Country
United States
Gender
Female
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
Mod Hat

Closing this thread for staff review.


I'd like to remind folks of this site wide rule:

Congregation Forums
Debating in congregation forums you are not a member of is not allowed.


 
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.