I was reading Luke 1 in my NIV 2011 this morning and when I came to verse 37 it said this: "For no word from God will ever fail. I didn't remember that verse saying that so I checked with other versions online and they all say: "For with God nothing is impossible." I'm wondering why the NIV translated that verse the way it did. Is it a mistranslation or translation choice? Just seems odd that the NIV is the only one that translates it this way.