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Question on Luke 1:37

GraceC

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I was reading Luke 1 in my NIV 2011 this morning and when I came to verse 37 it said this: "For no word from God will ever fail.” I didn't remember that verse saying that so I checked with other versions online and they all say: "For with God nothing is impossible." I'm wondering why the NIV translated that verse the way it did. Is it a mistranslation or translation choice? Just seems odd that the NIV is the only one that translates it this way.
 

miamited

Ted
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Hi grace,

I'd find another on line resource. At biblestudytools.com there are actually 7 translations that translate the verse as: No word (or promise) of God...

To get the answer to your question, however, you will need to dig up the oldest and what is believed to be most accurate copy of Luke's writing and translate it for yourself and see what should be the correct wording. Although you asked 'why' did the NIV translate it as such, I'm really guessing, if you are a BAB that you really want to know which is the correct translation.

God bless you.
In Christ, Ted
 
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football5680

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The NIV's translation style is Dynamic and formal equivalence which means they are trying to get as close to the meaning, and not necessarily the wording.

The next verse says this.
"I am the Lord's servant," Mary answered. "May your word to me be fulfilled." Then the angel left her.

So I think they were trying to connect it to this and Mary saying "May your word to me be fulfilled."
 
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