Question on a verse

[Dominus Fidelis]

"If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray." - 1 John 5:16

How has this verse traditionally been understood by the Orthodox?

 

[Photini]

The "sin leading to death" in 1 John is the same as the "unforgiveable sin" in Matthew 12:31.

 

[Dominus Fidelis]

The "sin leading to death" in 1 John is the same as the "unforgiveable sin" in Matthew 12:31.

Which is what sin?

 

[countrymousenc]

DOF, the answer I've heard most frequently is that this is rejecting Christ and/or turning back away from Christ to your former religion or way of life (i.e., in the immediate context of the New Testament, a reference to going back to Judaism after becoming Christian, or refusing to leave it in the first place).

 

[Moros]

I thought the 'unforgivable' sin was blaspheming the Holy Spirit?

 

[Photini]

I thought the 'unforgivable' sin was blaspheming the Holy Spirit?

That's the one.

 

[Photini]

Which is what sin?

Blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Sorry for being unclear previously.

 

[Eusebios]

Blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Sorry for being unclear previously.

But what IS blasphemy of the Holy Spirit?
His puzzled servant,
Eusebios.

 

[Photini]

See also Hebrews 10:26

 

[Photini]

But what IS blasphemy of the Holy Spirit?
His puzzled servant,
Eusebios.

It's been explained to me as a willful and persistant denial of and turning away from the grace of the Holy Spirit.
I hope someone else can help explain that better.

 

[christian-only]

Paul says the wages of sin is death, but John here says there is a sin that leads to death and a sin that doesn't lead to death. How can that be? Obviously, Paul is speaking of spiritual death and John of physical death. If a man committs a sin that doesn't literally kill him, pray about it. If he dies as a direct result of his sin, don't pray about it.

 

[Eusebios]

It's been explained to me as a willful and persistant denial of and turning away from the grace of the Holy Spirit.
I hope someone else can help explain that better.

Photini,
That makes sense to me. I have always wondered about it as the context of the verses before it seem to indicate that it could be attributing the work of God to the evil one. I have just been taught, in Orthodoxy, that it (the unpardonable sin) is what Dianne described in her post, which is essentially what you have said here.
Under His Mercy,
Eusebios.

 

[countrymousenc]

If you think about it, attributing the work of the Holy Spirit to the Evil one is the same thing as to willingly resist the Holy Spirit - both are an insult (blasphemy) to the Holy Spirit of God. Reading the gospels, especially the account of the Magi in Jerusalem, I get the impression that the leaders thought that the Messiah might indeed have come, and that it was not a convenient time (in their minds), so they rationalized their way around the truth and found excuses to reject Jesus. Jesus warned his listeners, also, that they must be willing to be rejected by their society and even their own families; He knew how strong the temptation to turn back to what was familiar would be. To have recognized and acknowledged the truth, and then to turn back because following was just too hard or too inconvenient would amount to idolatry, it seems to me.

And aren't we all in danger over one thing or another; I know I am. Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy upon me, a sinner.