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Question from Romans 3

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May 17, 2004
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If anyone is willing to answer this question, I am looking for answers to place in an e-mail I send out to my bible study every week. We are studying through Romans together by e-mail, since we are apart for the summer. Here is the question.

From Romans 3:10-18

"In verses 10-18, scriptures from the Psalms are being quoted. How do those scriptures apply to what Paul is teaching?"
 

Philip

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Bizzlebin Imperatoris said:
Yep. He is talking about how no one is really righteous, and quotes these just to reinforce the point

But the quotation, when placed in context, shows that the when the Psalmist wrote "none are righteous", he was not speaking literally. He was engaged in hyperbole. Is the same true of Paul?
 
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Ainesis

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cmuchristianguy said:
If anyone is willing to answer this question, I am looking for answers to place in an e-mail I send out to my bible study every week. We are studying through Romans together by e-mail, since we are apart for the summer. Here is the question.

From Romans 3:10-18

"In verses 10-18, scriptures from the Psalms are being quoted. How do those scriptures apply to what Paul is teaching?"
Hi Cmuchristianguy,

I think Paul uses this point to illustrate how Jesus came for the salvation of the Jews and the Gentiles. IOW, He came to pay for the sins of all the world. That left to himself, man would continue to decay and corrupt because there are no redeeming qualities about man in and of himself.
 
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