Question about a particular verse

[My King and Lord]

I have been trying to find out the meaning of these verses, but there is nothing on the web, no one in my DMs can tell me, and it is hard for me to understand. In Matthew 19:16-17 a man comes up to Jesus and calls him a good teacher and asks about the key to eternal life. In Mark 10:17-18 the man actually knelt to Jesus then asked his question. Jesus then ask the man why he calls him good as there is only one that is good, God. Jesus is supposed to be God in the flesh of a man, but he calls only God good? There are many verses where Jesus is clearly worshipped and shown as God. Matthew 2:11 Matthew 21:9 Matthew 28:9 Mark 1:1 Mark 2:5 Mark 3:11 John 1:1 John 1:14 and in Mark 11:17 where Jesus calls the Second Temple "My house." Could this verse be referring to his human nature? If so, how can I tell the difference between Jesus the man and Jesus the God?

 

[redleghunter]

I have been trying to find out the meaning of these verses, but there is nothing on the web, no one in my DMs can tell me, and it is hard for me to understand. In Matthew 19:16-17 a man comes up to Jesus and calls him a good teacher and asks about the key to eternal life. In Mark 10:17-18 the man actually knelt to Jesus then asked his question. Jesus then ask the man why he calls him good as there is only one that is good, God. Jesus is supposed to be God in the flesh of a man, but he calls only God good? There are many verses where Jesus is clearly worshipped and shown as God. Matthew 2:11 Matthew 21:9 Matthew 28:9 Mark 1:1 Mark 2:5 Mark 3:11 John 1:1 John 1:14 and in Mark 11:17 where Jesus calls the Second Temple "My house." Could this verse be referring to his human nature? If so, how can I tell the difference between Jesus the man and Jesus the God?

Jesus Christ is truly God and truly human. Son of God, Son of man God the Son.

Two natures One Person.

 

[My King and Lord]

Jesus Christ is truly God and truly human. Son of God, Son of man God the Son.

Two natures One Person.

I understand that, but it doesn't answer my question. Is the verse referring to Jesus human nature? Jesus is full God and full man, but he doesn't like to have "good" before the word teacher is added and states that only God is good. Further more, how can I tell which verses are about his human nature or his divinity as a God?

 

[royal priest]

I have been trying to find out the meaning of these verses, but there is nothing on the web, no one in my DMs can tell me, and it is hard for me to understand. In Matthew 19:16-17 a man comes up to Jesus and calls him a good teacher and asks about the key to eternal life. In Mark 10:17-18 the man actually knelt to Jesus then asked his question. Jesus then ask the man why he calls him good as there is only one that is good, God. Jesus is supposed to be God in the flesh of a man, but he calls only God good? There are many verses where Jesus is clearly worshipped and shown as God. Matthew 2:11 Matthew 21:9 Matthew 28:9 Mark 1:1 Mark 2:5 Mark 3:11 John 1:1 John 1:14 and in Mark 11:17 where Jesus calls the Second Temple "My house." Could this verse be referring to his human nature? If so, how can I tell the difference between Jesus the man and Jesus the God?

This man does not worship Jesus as God, but addresses Him as a mere teacher. Jesus answered the man according to his folly. "why do you call Me, a mere teacher, a mere fellow as yourself, good?"

 

[HTacianas]

I have been trying to find out the meaning of these verses, but there is nothing on the web, no one in my DMs can tell me, and it is hard for me to understand. In Matthew 19:16-17 a man comes up to Jesus and calls him a good teacher and asks about the key to eternal life. In Mark 10:17-18 the man actually knelt to Jesus then asked his question. Jesus then ask the man why he calls him good as there is only one that is good, God. Jesus is supposed to be God in the flesh of a man, but he calls only God good? There are many verses where Jesus is clearly worshipped and shown as God. Matthew 2:11 Matthew 21:9 Matthew 28:9 Mark 1:1 Mark 2:5 Mark 3:11 John 1:1 John 1:14 and in Mark 11:17 where Jesus calls the Second Temple "My house." Could this verse be referring to his human nature? If so, how can I tell the difference between Jesus the man and Jesus the God?

Jesus's statement to the man was an act of humility towards God. Only god is good.

It may well also be referring to his human nature, i.e, his flesh. The writer to the Romans said the same:

Rom 7:18 - For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing...

 

[My King and Lord]

Jesus's statement to the man was an act of humility towards God. Only god is good.

It may well also be referring to his human nature, i.e, his flesh. The writer to the Romans said the same:

Rom 7:18 - For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing...

So because he addressed Jesus as a good human, Jesus then states that only God is good. So if the man said to Jesus "Good Lord" would it have been fine with Jesus?

 

[Tone]

This man does not worship Jesus as God, but addresses Him as a mere teacher. Jesus answered the man according to his folly. "why do you call Me, a mere teacher, a mere fellow as yourself, good?"

I've always understood it along these lines; as Messiah cloaking Himself, due to people's lack of faith.

Matthew 13:58
"And he did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief."

 

[TuxAme]

Did the rich man know that Jesus is God? The answer is "no". He was right to say that Jesus is good, but he didn't know it. He didn't know of Jesus' divinity- as far as he knew, he was just calling another man good.

 

[Tone]

@Zeerich

What's DMs?

 

[Hank77]

So because he addressed Jesus as a good human, Jesus then states that only God is good. So if the man said to Jesus "Good Lord" would it have been fine with Jesus?

I find that commentaries can be helpful, too. There are many on this site.
Matthew 19 Gill's Exposition

 

[HTacianas]

So because he addressed Jesus as a good human, Jesus then states that only God is good. So if the man said to Jesus "Good Lord" would it have been fine with Jesus?

Maybe. Remember that the writers of the bible included in it those lessons they deemed to be important. The point of the story from the writer's perspective is not so much how Jesus was addressed, or even the reply about God being good, but to reach the teaching that keeping the commandments was important. The writer of John said at the end:

Jhn 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

The meaning is that there were so many things Jesus said and did that it would be impossible to record them all. If it were impossible to record them all, the writers had to sort through all of the things they knew about and include what they thought were the most important.

A number of those things were in response to heresies that cropped up long after the crucifixion. We had on this board a few weeks ago a full-blown antinomian. An antinomian is a person who teaches that the entirety of the Jewish law was abrogated by Jesus and that it is impossible for anything to be sin. That is a heresy that came up early in the Church. In refuting that heresy, the writers of Matthew, Mark, and Luke all recorded that keeping the commandments is important.

 

[royal priest]

I've always understood it along these lines; as Messiah cloaking Himself, due to people's lack of faith.

Matthew 13:58
"And he did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief."

Yes. Working in conjunction with His Father.
Matthew 11:25-27
At that time Jesus declared, “I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that you have hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to little children; yes, Father, for such was your gracious will. All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.

 

[redleghunter]

I understand that, but it doesn't answer my question. Is the verse referring to Jesus human nature? Jesus is full God and full man, but he doesn't like to have "good" before the word teacher is added and states that only God is good. Further more, how can I tell which verses are about his human nature or his divinity as a God?

Jesus’s comments were not addressing His nature.

Jesus was establishing only God is Holy and Good. That if the man recognized Christ for Who He was the encounter may have been different.

For Jesus told the man to sell all he had and follow Him. Thus connecting eternal life with following Jesus.

 

[(° ͡ ͜ ͡ʖ ͡ °) (ᵔᴥᵔʋ)]

I understand that, but it doesn't answer my question. Is the verse referring to Jesus human nature? Jesus is full God and full man, but he doesn't like to have "good" before the word teacher is added and states that only God is good. Further more, how can I tell which verses are about his human nature or his divinity as a God?

Let me dig into my commentaries and get you an answer in the next couple hours.

 

[redleghunter]

So because he addressed Jesus as a good human, Jesus then states that only God is good. So if the man said to Jesus "Good Lord" would it have been fine with Jesus?

It would have acknowledged Who He was. But Jesus only revealed He was Messiah and Son of God to His disciples.

It was not until His Resurrection where we see statements like Thomas’ where he says:

John 20:

28Thomas replied, “My Lord and my God!”

 

[(° ͡ ͜ ͡ʖ ͡ °) (ᵔᴥᵔʋ)]

I have been trying to find out the meaning of these verses, but there is nothing on the web, no one in my DMs can tell me, and it is hard for me to understand. In Matthew 19:16-17 a man comes up to Jesus and calls him a good teacher and asks about the key to eternal life. In Mark 10:17-18 the man actually knelt to Jesus then asked his question. Jesus then ask the man why he calls him good as there is only one that is good, God. Jesus is supposed to be God in the flesh of a man, but he calls only God good? There are many verses where Jesus is clearly worshipped and shown as God. Matthew 2:11 Matthew 21:9 Matthew 28:9 Mark 1:1 Mark 2:5 Mark 3:11 John 1:1 John 1:14 and in Mark 11:17 where Jesus calls the Second Temple "My house." Could this verse be referring to his human nature? If so, how can I tell the difference between Jesus the man and Jesus the God?

What translation are you using? That may provide some insight. Here is the passage from the NIV which may help you to understand what the passage is saying.

16 Just then a man came up to Jesus and asked, “Teacher, what good thing must I do to get eternal life?"

17 “Why do you ask me about what is good?” Jesus replied. “There is only One who is good. If you want to enter life, keep the commandments.”

As you can see from this translation, the focus is on what actions one can take to earn eternal life. Jesus' response is not to deny His goodness, rather, He is saying that only by obeying all the commandments is that possible. Since Jesus is the only one who obeyed all the commandments, "there is only One who is good" and that "One" is Jesus. In conclusion, the passage is not questioning Jesus' goodness, rather, it is confirming His goodness.

Oh, and don't worry. I am still going to dig through my commentaries.

 

[Carl Emerson]

I find it interesting that you should ask this question.

This is because Jesus was correcting an attitude foundational to the New Age movement.

The man did not know that Jesus was God. Jesus hid His true identity at this stage of His ministry.

The man had a habit of elevating humans to a God status and Jesus made it very clear that this was wrong. There is a vast chasm between humanity and Godliness.

Blessings,

Carl Emerson

 

[Erik Nelson]

I have been trying to find out the meaning of these verses, but there is nothing on the web, no one in my DMs can tell me, and it is hard for me to understand. In Matthew 19:16-17 a man comes up to Jesus and calls him a good teacher and asks about the key to eternal life. In Mark 10:17-18 the man actually knelt to Jesus then asked his question. Jesus then ask the man why he calls him good as there is only one that is good, God. Jesus is supposed to be God in the flesh of a man, but he calls only God good? There are many verses where Jesus is clearly worshipped and shown as God. Matthew 2:11 Matthew 21:9 Matthew 28:9 Mark 1:1 Mark 2:5 Mark 3:11 John 1:1 John 1:14 and in Mark 11:17 where Jesus calls the Second Temple "My house." Could this verse be referring to his human nature? If so, how can I tell the difference between Jesus the man and Jesus the God?

Your question goes to the heart of the Trinity.

Christ was the incarnation of the WORD of God. So we say Christ was the SON of God, the father, but Christ was not the father or the incarnation of the father directly.

 

[~Zao~]

It seems to me that while Christ was in the flesh He carried with Him that which therein nothing good dwells. So technically that would be the missing link that contrasts to God’s Goodness. Romans 7:18-23 Where Jesus overcame the flesh is what He can now do for us, in yielding to the Spirit in the new nature. The old nature of flesh cannot perform the good.

 

[Dr. Jack]

This conversation starts in verse 16, and Jesus makes his first comment in verse 17, (the one in question). The gest of the text however continues to the end of the chapter.

It wasn't that Jesus 'minded' being called "good", it was that because He already knew the man's heart, He knew that the man trusted in his own wealth, and was not willing to see that before him stood the greatest wealth in existence, the One who was willing to give him of Himself, and therefore giving him eternal life.

Each of the answers above indeed touch on the fact that Jesus is God, (and therefore 'good'), but to obtain eternal life, we must surrender ourselves to only trust in the Person of Jesus Christ, who is not 'just' good, but is the personification of eternal life.

The rich young man departed without eternal life because his temporal earthly wealth was mpre important to him than realizing that Jesus is beyond what he sought for. The man wasn't seeking redemption of his soul, he was seeking eternal life in the earthly realm, so he could continue to live his life of luxury 'forever'.

I hope that helps.