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Put away or Divorced

lost72

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I have been reading alot about divorce lately. I know what I read in the bible, I know what is considered right and wrong. But I read something that I haven't seen anyone touch on in here and I would love some feedback.

"Divorce" and "Put or send away" are not the same thing. A man who wanted to divorce his wife had to do two things, write her a bill of divorcement and then send her away or put her away, Deuteronomy 24:1-4, Mark 10:4. A man who found that his wife had been unfaithful to him did not write her a bill of divorcement as she and the other man were stoned. Malachi and Matthew chapter five were all about men who were putting or sending away their wives without just cause. Men were putting away their wives without writing a bill of divorcement even though their wives were not guilty of adultery. God hates the putting away because it always involves sin. In one case the sin of the wife for being unfaithful and in the other the sin of the husband for putting his wife away with out just cause or a bill of divorce. The act of putting away a wife without a bill of divorcement is equivalent to separation. The man and woman are still married.

After reading this, it gives me questions.

I have read many articles stating that put away and divorced are two different meanings. According to Herbrew and Greek the translation means two different things. My understanding is that men in the OT didn't divorce their wives, they simply put their wives away without giving them a certificate of divorcement. They simply put them away and went with someone else. In my opinion this would cause the woman to infact commit adultery because she was still married to her husband. But if the man was unfaithful to his wife she was freed from the marriage bond. There were no written divorce certificates. Is this also where the scripture about mens hearts being so hard comes in?? They left their wives out cold. They could not remarry because they were not divorced. Just put away. Because of the hardness of their hearts. One could argue that in this day and age you can not just put someone away without divorce papers, but isnt that separation? There have only been 2 divorces in the bible that I know of (please let me know if more) Is this why Jesus wrote the exceptions, but was it really meaning one can not
just put his wife away without her committing adultery? I am going to do my research again and be able to write this with scriptures and examples. This is just a quick thought, what do you think.
 

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Divorce is a civil action and the grounds vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. However, I think that I am safe in saying that in the vast majority of states one partner can delay divorce but cannot ultimately prevent it from happening.
 
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desi

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Desert Fox said:
I think it's a mistake to read the Bible as if it were some legal code from which you can draw rules and exceptions. Love your neighbor as yourself. That is the most explicit rule you should draw from the Bible.
Is it wiser and more loving to ignore the rules and exceptions delineated in the Bible?
 
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SkyeBlue8

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The Bible is meant to be read in a way that we are able to live our lives by it, so no, it's not wrong to look to the Bible for that reason.
The Bible is full of "rules" (as in do not commit adultery, do not lie), as well as advice, examples, etc. It was written so that we as Christians can live our lives by it.
 
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bkg

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SkyeBlue8 said:
The Bible is meant to be read in a way that we are able to live our lives by it, so no, it's not wrong to look to the Bible for that reason.
The Bible is full of "rules" (as in do not commit adultery, do not lie), as well as advice, examples, etc. It was written so that we as Christians can live our lives by it.
Agreed, 100% - Great Post!
 
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lost72

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It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Matthew 5:31-32

This is where my questions come in. There was only 2 divorces in the bible. This seems to clearly state that whoever puts his wife away must give her writing of divorcement. Whoever puts his wife away causeth her to commit adultery. Is the put away with or without the writing of divorcement, since the bible only talks about 2 divorces. Was this Jesus way of making sure people got divorced rather than "just separated" because of the hardness of mans heart?? Men did not want to divorce their wives, they wanted to claim them back one day. They put them away for future use, obvioulsy the woman would commit adultery if she remarried because she still belonged to her husband. UNLESS OF COURSE HE HIMSELF COMMITTED ADULTERY THUS FREEING HER BOND TO HIM.
Another.....

Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from [her] husband committeth adultery.

Luke 16:18


I am led to believe because of the translation of the greek and hebrew words that this wife is put away without a writing of divorcement.


The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made [them] at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to GIVE A WRITING OF DIVORCEMENT, AND to PUT HER AWAY? He saith unto them, Moses because of the HARDNESS of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Matthew 19:3-9

My understanding again is that men were forced to divorce their wives rather than just putting them away and being greedy because of the hardness of their hearts. That is why one is free if the husband put her away without divorcing her, if he was unfaithful. In some other scriptures it uses the word divorce when it should be put away, making it confusing. Could this be a mistranslation over many years. It really has me curious. Have you ever played the gossip game. One person starts a sentence and u pass it around the room. When it is passed on the 25 person or so, it is a completly changed sentence. How can we be sure that the Hebrew and greek words were properly put into english with the exact context that was intended??????

I have a few websites to read more if you are interested. I found so many regarding this topic.


Please let me know what you think.

www.webedelic.com/church/putawayt.htm
http://home.earthlink.net/~truth/sec8-4-2marriage.html
 
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