- May 10, 2018
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I believe one of the unique aspects of Christianity in comparison to all other religions is that works do not result in Salvation.
Then who specifically and exclusively was Jesus addressing, in Matthew 25:31-46? And how do you know this does not apply to you?
Or, for that matter, Luke 14:33? Maybe God deems you as rich?
Now, what's interesting about that is that for people who think that works are required for Salvation, I'm fine with that. Because whether John believes works are required, or John doesn't believe works are required, the way John actually lives, shouldn't change if he's a follower of Christ.
Disagree, until further notice. Please see above.
I think when you look across at the three branches of Christianity, you find the core to be unified. The core being that Christ is God, Christ was born of virgin. Christ lived a sinless life. Christ died on the cross. Christ rose from the dead. Christ ascended into heaven. Christ will at some point in the future, in some way, return to earth. There is unity in that among all three branches of Christianity. And that's what matters.
None of this pertains to the topic of humans reaching claimed required tenets for salvation. Thus, the above does not matter, in this particular case.
I again ask, (3rd attempt):
What institution provides the best Biblical education? And furthermore, what are they teaching, in regards to the tenets to salvation? Is it the Catholics, other, other, other?
John may believe that he has to have works accompany his relationship with Christ to get to Heaven, while Jason believes that his works are simply a result of his relationship with Christ - they're both doing good works, and they both have a relationship with Christ.
I think my above answer addresses this. But as you probably want more, I would say they "muddied the water" in the sense that they added something that isn't necessary.
Please see above. You have your provided Biblical verses for achieved salvation, where as I now added more; Matthew 25:31-46 and Luke 14:33. Why are yours [the] solution, where as mine are merely optional, or further, why am I muddying the waters?
Sure, as long as you stick to the NT. I would rather not go off on rabbit trails explaining why you don't understand the OT. So, stick to the NT on this line of reasoning and I'll play your game.
Um, okay....
I'm going to make a couple of hypotheses here. I gather it's not me, whom might be 'playing a game', in the end?
Let me first make my objective clear. The purpose here, is to demonstrate that [your] own moral intuitions disagree with some assertions from the Bible. And further, that some sort of cognitive dissonance, special pleading, rationalization, or other, might be required, upon your part, to reconcile the verse(s).
My second hypothesis, is that we likely fundamentally agree, (both you and I), on the ones listed.
The objective is not necessary to raise discord, or to be adversarial; but instead merely to demonstrate that you likely have to 'spin' some verses, in some inconsistent manner, to make them more comfortable or you. Where as I read them, and think... "Well, it would appear an uniformed individual wrote that verse, as such assertions were mere common-place, for the era in which it was written."
Still care to 'play'?
I don't know whether it was literal or figurative. I haven't put that much effort into studying it. Sorry~
Then you are already starting to demonstrate the title of this thread
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