In the sense that one distinguishes between effective causes and final causes.
The final cause being ... ?
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In the sense that one distinguishes between effective causes and final causes.
The final cause being ... ?
...beyond the reach of science. But not beyond the reach of scientists.
Does that mean the final cause can be perceived (by scientists) yet not measured (by science)?
It means that the methodology of science can't determine the purpose of nature. But there are other ways of knowing that.
That sounds somewhat Platonist to me.
Aristotlean actually, not Platonic.
The final cause is conceived by Aristotle as why the formal or efficient causes act as they do. It is the cause for the sake of which everything is done. So the final cause is not made up of efficient causes, but does explain them. As in Evolutionary Biology explaining why a certain mutation or such was favoured. So Finches say, develop certain beaks by natural selection (efficient cause) for the purpose of more efficient eating (formal cause) that can ultimately be deduced as the evolutionary pressure that was at play; or bees develop sterile drones by group selection for certain genes, etc.I don't think Aristotle would have approved of a final cause made up of effective causes.
Aristotlean actually, not Platonic.
Maybe so, but let me clarify my thoughts. I was thinking Platonist in the sense that it seemed to invoke a Form called "science" that exists apart from the scientist
Even in Dawkins I see an element of "I want to be a hard core atheist, but for the purposes of debate I need to stick with what I can defend."
So, I would be surprised if there are unbelieving scientists who would accept people can perceive things that can't be measured.
Maybe it falls in that gray zone where neither believers nor unbelievers can find firm ground, but I still suspect there are few (if any) unbelievers who would accept such a notion.
So, back to "purpose", as I've tried to indicate in several posts, I'm feeling out this idea. I don't have a settled notion. One thing I do know is that I wasn't trying to sneak God in the back door as the "final cause."
Shuffling off the moral impulses of people as a mere evolutionary mechanism doesn't feel right to me. Life is about more than surviving.
Even unbelievers can appreciate beauty without thinking such appreciation must be aiding their survival in some way. Yet I also realize all the pitfalls of moral systems that come from varying perspectives. But is there something in the middle? Are there competing purposes wherein people are willing to jeopardize survival for joy (or revenge, et. al.)? If so, does that have a place in biology?
If so, how do you then define those purposes?
I suppose he cares about being intellectually honest.
In the sense that there is a Form called "plumbing" that exists apart from the plumber.
he final cause is conceived by Aristotle as why the formal or efficient causes act as they do. It is the cause for the sake of which everything is done. So the final cause is not made up of efficient causes, but does explain them. As in Evolutionary Biology explaining why a certain mutation or such was favoured. So Finches say, develop certain beaks by natural selection (efficient cause) for the purpose of more efficient eating (formal cause) that can ultimately be deduced as the evolutionary pressure that was at play; or bees develop sterile drones by group selection for certain genes, etc.
This is certainly not the final cause made up by efficient causes, but efficient causes showing the way to the final cause. Aristotle would certainly approve, as he did something very similar to deduce final causes for why objects fall and such.
I don't believe in plumbing apart from a plumber.
I don't believe anything exists apart from the mind that created it.
For the universe, that means God.