I show this dates to 150 AD.
This first part comparing Mary's parents Abraham because his they have no child. Sound about right?
I think this writing was popular for many Christians and up until the 4th or 5th century found it's use quite often, even at the Divine Liturgy.
The document presents itself as written by James: "I, James, wrote this history in Jerusalem."-XXV
[2] Thus the purported author is
James the Just, whom the text claims is a son of Joseph from a prior marriage, and thus a stepbrother of Jesus.
Scholars have established that, based on the style of the language and the fact that the author is apparently not aware of contemporary Jewish customs while James the Just certainly was, the work is
pseudepigraphical (written by someone other than the person who claims to have done so).
[3] It apparently embellishes what is told of events surrounding Mary, prior to and at the moment of Jesus' birth, in the Gospels of
Matthew and
Luke.
The consensus is that it was actually composed some time in the 2nd century AD. The first mention of it is by
Origen of Alexandria in the early third century, who says the text, like that of a "
Gospel of Peter", was of dubious, recent appearance and shared with that book the claim that the 'brethren of the Lord' were sons of Joseph by a former wife.
[4]
Gospel of James - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Why do you suppose it was necessary for the author to attach the name of James to the work? IOW, if the author had said, I'm Joe Blow and I wrote this, then what reception would it have had?
This reminds me of the spurious Ignatian letters. Only by attaching a respected name was it ever accepted. Trying to undo a falsehood is hard. We don't see Eve reattaching the bitten apple.
The next question is why then do folks continue to support something that
is false?