Montalban said:
This is false. The primary purpose of sex is to take part in love.
ibn_leroy said:
Actually, that's false. The concept of love, or more precisely romance, is not prevalent in many cultures. But, if you've never studied other cultures it figures you'd believe that. Hey, what does it matter, they're all savages anyway, right? White man's burden indeed . . .
I have, indeed stated a Christian 'ideal'. I have already stated why your assumption is false, if it was only about procreation then even all societies would call for sex only when a woman is capable of having children.
But what you mix up is that many societies are male-orientated, and that his pleasure alone is dominant in the idea of when to have sex.
Further your argument is exceptionally weak in that you are saying "If only you knew the evidence", and you present none. You have argued against my 'ideal' as if you believe that if you disprove 'a' it proves 'b'.
Montalban said:
Here it is then 'the capacity' argument. The idea being, Aisha had the capacity for sex, therefore she was 'ready' for sex.
ibn_leroy said:
Yes, she did have 'the capacity.' But since there seems to be some confusion on your part let me spell it out explicitly - she had the capacity to bear children.
How many children did she have? What was her 'capacity to have children'? I already know the answer to how many she had, and so do you, but you're not the only one reading this. I'd like to see how you can have a 'capacity to have children'. Considering that you said earlier that the purpose of sex is to solely procreate, so we're not talking about 'capacity' in the sense of two adults who have a 'capacity to have children' and choose to have none (because that itself is not having sex for the purposes you propose!) (nor are we talking about 'capacity' and total abstention).
You made this illogical assumption quite clear... sex is about procreation. The argument being that as soon as Aisha had the ability to have children (and this itself is not proven yet by you), she was okay for sex.
Not only did this union, when she was 9 produce no children, we quite clearly know that Muhammad had no children with her, ever. If either party had no 'capacity' to have children, then the sex that they had was not for procreation, as you pretend that it is. Therefore the sex that they engaged in is either out of 'love' as according to the Christian ideal, or out of lustful pleasure (pleasure can come from love).
Abandoning the 'sex for procreation ONLY' fallacy, your argument must then rest on some notion that even at nine, she was capable of reciprocal pleasure... as in an adult to adult situation. And you've only made just-so statements about a link between physical and psychological maturity; in that you believe that they match at all times. Don't forget, we call this transitional period 'adolescence', but for you it doesn't exist. Someone goes straight from child to adult.
Another issue here, you've not considered is the mistake made that the moment a girl's age is such that she starts mensturating, that she's able to have children!
"There is a mis-conception that when a young girl has her first menarche, she is capable of getting pregnant"
http://www.exmuslim.com/com/science_&_puberty.htm
(note again you believe sex is solely related to a procreation). There is nothing to say that one absolutely relates to the other. And even if she is 'able' to have children, it is also known about the risks to younger mothers in issues of health (risks both to her and the baby).
See: "Fact Sheet No.23, Harmful Traditional Practices Affecting the Health of Women and Children" (see also Appendix below)
http://www.unhchr.ch/html/menu6/2/fs23.htm
What in effect you are arguing also is that women are baby-machines, who's capacity to be considered an adult rests on a 'capacity to have children'.
Montalban said:
False. A child of any age has the capacity for sex
ibn_leroy said:
Wrong. This is a straw man. You knew very well (or should have known) that when talking about sexual capacity, I was speaking in biological terms about one's ability to reproduce.
No, you made an assumption that sex is only about reproduction based on a problem you have with my idea of 'love'.
Even if you can disprove the 'sex=love' idea, you've not proved the 'sex=reproduction' idea (which as stated is falsified by the fact that there are not universal taboos against having sex with a woman incapable of having children; due to any reason (pregnancy, old age, medical incapacity, etc.).
It is true I have stated the "Christian ideal", but even if you don't accept this, your argument is still not proven. Therefore the 'capacity to have sex' issue remains.
How many children did Aisha have? How was her 'capacity to have children'?
Montalban said:
False again, refer above to the issue of oral sex. The ability to gratify does not mean that sex is allowed.
ibn_leroy said:
Straw man, straw man, straw man. I simply wasn't talking about sexual gratification, and you know it.
You should then show me how through your extensive knowledge of 'the world's cultures' how many have taboos on sex that can't lead to children. Then, how this relates to the Arab practices. Then how this relates to all the children Muhammad had (or didn't have). And then, why this practice, from a specific time and place is justifiable for all time, and cultures. Thanks in advance.
Montalban said:
It is not a relative standard, as shown, there is and always has been a widespread ban against having sex with a partner, simply based on the capacity of that partner to provide sexual gratification.
ibn_leroy said:
Str-str-str-straw man . . .
So you say. See above.
What was Aisha's 'capacity to have children' aged 9?
Montalban said:
According to morality. A girl, who doesn't have the capacity to make a judgment for herself on whom she would like to have relationships with, (not just 'sex'), is given away by her father for political motives. If anyone else did it, it would still be wrong..
ibn_leroy said:
According to morality? Right, and so is mongrelization . Arranged marriages are absolutely wrong? PLEASE. Civilize those savages why don't you! By the way, their marriage had nothing to do with politics.
Straw-man to you. Note in my previous post I talked of love between those who are equally able to reciprocate.
Secondly, for someone such as yourself who believes in Koranic law, you've just over-turned it's universality, because you now would have to argue you have no right to seek to impose Islamic laws on other cultures.
Montalban said:
Child labour laws did not make child labour immoral, only illegal. It was immoral before and still is. The expression of society may have changed, but the issue of morality is still one of absolutes.
ibn_leroy said:
What does child labour have to do with anything?
You seem to want to have two arguments at once. Both that Muhammad is an example of morality for all time, but that his behaviour was of a certain time and place. A logical conclusion to this is you'd want us all to adopt the morals of that particular time and place, but then you just argued against that with the cultural imperialist argument.
ibn_leroy said:
Like I said in my first post, you're oblivious to your own frame of reference. What will it take for you to realize, "CHILDHOOD" IS RELATIVE! (Oh yes, it is). In reality, there's no such thing as a "legal age" for adulthood. Actual childhood as defined by biology/physiology is absolute. However, again, "CHILDHOOD" AS DEFINED BY PSYCHOLOGICAL AND PRACTICAL MATURITY IS RELATIVE!. I think I'll say that again: "CHILDHOOD" AS DEFINED BY PSYCHOLOGICAL AND PRACTICAL MATURITY IS RELATIVE!
Tell me why is the physical capacity to have children equal to the mental capacity to have children.
Read these first
"Child marriage 'violates rights'"
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/1206979.stm
And note...
"Moreover, child brides are pressured to bear a child within the first year of marriage, making girls susceptible to an increased risk of death and injury. Studies indicate that girls between 10 and 14 are five times more likely to die in pregnancy and childbirth than women aged 20-24"
http://seattlepi.nwsource.com/opinion/181142_child08.html
The 'capacity to have children' argument is flawed, because even when a girl has the 'capacity to have a child' she is likely to have the 'capacity for an early death'. But hey, it's all relative!
ibn_leroy said:
One more time . . . just kidding. Now, let's break this down with an example, shall we? My grandmother was married at 14, and had all her children before she was 20. So, we have two questions to answer here according to the two absolute and relative definitions of childhood. First, was she a child in the biological sense? Obviously not, she bore children. As for sexual gratification, well, you'd have to ask my grandfather . Second, was she a child in the psychological/emotional/practical/etc. sense? Again, the answer is no; there wasn't a "childish" bone in her body. I mean, not one. But can the same be said for the 8th or 9th grader wearing glitter lip-gloss? Of course not. But why is that, Montalban? Could psychological/practical maturity, and thus, "childhood", be relative? Yes, sir, it sure can. So don't try me with this, "sleeping with a 'child' is absolutely wrong" garbage, when the 'child' in question is relative.
How very odd that you compare a 14 year old capable of having children (your own criteria) to that of Aisha at nine, where there's no proof that she had the 'capacity to have children'. In fact we know she was still 'childish'. Let's look at Islamic evidence...
Bukhari vol. 5, #234 says:
"Narrated Aisha: The prophet engaged me when I was a girl of six. We went to Medina and stayed at the home of Harith Kharzraj. Then I got ill and my hair fell down. Later on my hair grew (again) and my mother, Um Ruman, came to me
while I was playing in a swing with some of my girl friends. She called me, and I went to her, not knowing what she wanted to do to me. She caught me by the hand and made me stand at the door of the house. I was breathless then, and when my breathing became all right, she took some water and rubbed my face and head with it. Then she took me into the house. There in the house I saw some Ansari women who said, "Best wishes and Allah's blessing and a good luck." Then she entrusted me to them and they prepared me (for the marriage). Unexpectedly Allah's messenger came to me in the forenoon and my mother handed me over to him, and at that time I was a girl of nine years of age."
So, while she was still doing childish things, playing with girlfriends on the swings, she was taken by Muhammad.
'I used to play with dolls in the house of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). I had friends who used to play with me. When the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) came in, they would hide themselves, then he would call them to join me and play with me.'
http://63.175.194.25/index.php?ln=e...e&QR=9473&dgn=4
And while doing this... he fantasised about her...
"...[T]he Prophet (Muhammad) said to her (Aisha), 'You have been shown to me twice in my dream. I saw you pictured on a piece of silk and someone said (to me). 'This is your wife.' When I uncovered the picture, I saw that it was yours. I said, 'If this is from Allah, it will be done.'" (Hadith, Sahih Bukhari 5:58:235). Remember, that she was only a child. He is fantasising about a little girl.
ibn_leroy said:
To wrap it up, human beings do have the capacity ( ) to function as independent, responsible, and yes, mature wives, mothers, husbands, and fathers at very young ages.
For you this is an issue that as soon as your physically beginning to be an adult, the biology carries everything else with it.
ibn_leroy said:
There's simply no logical way to argue against that, and there's surely no way to debate biological facts. The only way your point will hold is if you argue that psychological and practical maturity is determined by an absolute standard. But there's no way you can believe something that far fetched.
If you can show that we are mentally adults the moment we reach puberty, you'd be on your way to some sort of argument.