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Problem with the John 13:18/ Psalm 41:9 parallel

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shanew711

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I'm having a hard time figuring out why Psalm 41:9 is quoted directly by Jesus as being a scripture to be fulfilled when it isn't apparent to me that the scripture is actually about Jesus. If the scripture is in fact about Him, then why does Psalm 41:4 say "Heal my soul, for I have sinned against You." ? I would greatly appreciate any clarification.
 

His_disciple3

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first of all this thread is confusing, you say Psalm 41:9 and you post Psalm 41:4 However Jesus didn't quote directly psalm but rather a prophet quoted Psalm 41, then in John, Jesus said that scripture/prophecy was being fulfilled. all of psalm 41 was not about Jesus if it were we would not find this in it!!! For Jesus never sinned!!!!!!

Psalms 41:4
4 I said, Lord, be merciful unto me: heal my soul; for I have sinned against thee.
KJV

John 13:18
18 I speak not of you all: I know whom I have chosen: but that the scripture may be fulfilled, He that eateth bread with me hath lifted up his heel against me.
KJV
 
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shanew711

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It wouldn't make grammatical sense for that sentence to be talking about Jesus and for the rest of the passage to be talking about someone else. Obviously each psalm is its own self-contained story and every line relates to the same story. I'm still looking for a proper explanation if anyone has one. I'm not trying to refute the Bible's legitimacy, I'm a christian and am just curious about your explanations for this. Was Jesus not trying to imply that he was the topic of conversation in that psalm?
 
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Markus6

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No, to fulfill a Psalm is not the same as fulfilling a prophecy. This was a Psalm of David - so it's David's story, David's words and David's emotions being directed towards God. Just because we see a fulfillment in Jesus does not at all divorce the Psalm from its author and time.

I see the fulfillment in more of a Hebrews sense. Many Psalms express depression and oppression - and the great news is that we have a Saviour who can identify with those feelings, who has been through the darkest of what it means to be human. There are many Psalms that are pained cries to God, and Jesus shared in those cries ("My God, my God. Why have you forsaken me?") before defeating death and then ascending to be our advocate in heaven.
 
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shanew711

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Alright, that makes a bit more sense. My main problem was that it seemed to me that Jesus was implying the Psalm was about him, but if it's obviously not supposed to be then this makes sense. I don't have a complete understanding of how the New Testament and Old Testament are supposed to interact, especially in this case. Thank you.
 
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