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Guest
Here is a new thread to chew on, folks. It has nothing to do with any other thread here that I know of and would appreciate it if someone could link me to other threads that may have discussed this topic in the past, lest it seem redundant.
First off, I confess utter and complete ignorance of this topic which is why I am raising it. As many of my LDS and former LDS friends here know this board has been a rich learning experience for me and I hope to expand upon it with this thread.
My question relates to the priesthood authority of John the Baptist. It was sparked by the following passage from Matthew 21:
24 When He entered the temple, the chief priests and the elders of the people came to Him while He was teaching, and said, "By what authority are You doing these things, and who gave You this authority?"
24 Jesus said to them, "I will also ask you one thing, which if you tell Me, I will also tell you by what authority I do these things.
25 "The baptism of John was from what {source,} from heaven or from men?" And they {began} reasoning among themselves, saying, "If we say, 'From heaven,' He will say to us, 'Then why did you not believe him?'
26 "But if we say, 'From men,' we fear the people; for they all regard John as a prophet."
27 And answering Jesus, they said, "We do not know." He also said to them, "Neither will I tell you by what authority I do these things.
As I understand LDS theology, one must possess the proper priesthood authority in order to baptize. Because John the Baptist did baptize I assume that LDS believe that he held the proper priesthood authority. Jesus raised the question which, of course, the Pharisees would not answer. Jesus Himself did not answer the question either, for that matter. The source of John's priesthood authority could be one of the following:
1. The Levitical priesthood.
2. The LDS Aaronic priesthood.
3. The LDS Melchizedek priesthood.
4. Jesus Christ,
5. Heavenly Father.
Now, I will address a few comments concerning the possibilities and open it up for discussion.
1. The Levitical priesthood. Although John was hereditarily a Levitical priest he did not perform any Levitical priestly functions in the Temple as far as we know. In addition, baptism was not an ordinance of the Levitical priesthood and was not possible to perform in the Temple, hence he baptized in the Jordan River.
2. The LDS Aaronic priesthood. I assume at this point that there are few differences between the Levitical priesthood described above and the LDS Aaronic priesthood. Therefore, it is impossible that John's priesthood authority was derived from that source in regard to performing baptism.
3. The LDS Melchizedek priesthood. This is a very fuzzy area of thought for me. If Jesus Christ bestowed the LDS Melchizedek priesthood on the Apostles, that would exclude John because he preceded not only the Apostles but Jesus Christ Himself.
4. Jesus Christ, Again, we see John the Baptist performing baptisms before he even met Jesus Christ, so it would be absurd to think that he received priesthoood authority from a person he had not met before beginning his baptismal ministry.
5. Heavenly Father. This seems to be the most likely source of his authority IMO. However, it is highly problematic. If Heavenly Father bestowed priesthood authority apart from the LDS Aaronic or LDS Melchizedek priesthood authority, then we have a third form of priesthood authority established directly by Heavenly Father. Who is to say, then, that any person cannot hold the JB (short for John the Baptist) priesthood authority or that Heavenly Father cannot or will not bestow priesthood authority apart from the two forms of LDS priesthood authority?
First off, I confess utter and complete ignorance of this topic which is why I am raising it. As many of my LDS and former LDS friends here know this board has been a rich learning experience for me and I hope to expand upon it with this thread.
My question relates to the priesthood authority of John the Baptist. It was sparked by the following passage from Matthew 21:
24 When He entered the temple, the chief priests and the elders of the people came to Him while He was teaching, and said, "By what authority are You doing these things, and who gave You this authority?"
24 Jesus said to them, "I will also ask you one thing, which if you tell Me, I will also tell you by what authority I do these things.
25 "The baptism of John was from what {source,} from heaven or from men?" And they {began} reasoning among themselves, saying, "If we say, 'From heaven,' He will say to us, 'Then why did you not believe him?'
26 "But if we say, 'From men,' we fear the people; for they all regard John as a prophet."
27 And answering Jesus, they said, "We do not know." He also said to them, "Neither will I tell you by what authority I do these things.
As I understand LDS theology, one must possess the proper priesthood authority in order to baptize. Because John the Baptist did baptize I assume that LDS believe that he held the proper priesthood authority. Jesus raised the question which, of course, the Pharisees would not answer. Jesus Himself did not answer the question either, for that matter. The source of John's priesthood authority could be one of the following:
1. The Levitical priesthood.
2. The LDS Aaronic priesthood.
3. The LDS Melchizedek priesthood.
4. Jesus Christ,
5. Heavenly Father.
Now, I will address a few comments concerning the possibilities and open it up for discussion.
1. The Levitical priesthood. Although John was hereditarily a Levitical priest he did not perform any Levitical priestly functions in the Temple as far as we know. In addition, baptism was not an ordinance of the Levitical priesthood and was not possible to perform in the Temple, hence he baptized in the Jordan River.
2. The LDS Aaronic priesthood. I assume at this point that there are few differences between the Levitical priesthood described above and the LDS Aaronic priesthood. Therefore, it is impossible that John's priesthood authority was derived from that source in regard to performing baptism.
3. The LDS Melchizedek priesthood. This is a very fuzzy area of thought for me. If Jesus Christ bestowed the LDS Melchizedek priesthood on the Apostles, that would exclude John because he preceded not only the Apostles but Jesus Christ Himself.
4. Jesus Christ, Again, we see John the Baptist performing baptisms before he even met Jesus Christ, so it would be absurd to think that he received priesthoood authority from a person he had not met before beginning his baptismal ministry.
5. Heavenly Father. This seems to be the most likely source of his authority IMO. However, it is highly problematic. If Heavenly Father bestowed priesthood authority apart from the LDS Aaronic or LDS Melchizedek priesthood authority, then we have a third form of priesthood authority established directly by Heavenly Father. Who is to say, then, that any person cannot hold the JB (short for John the Baptist) priesthood authority or that Heavenly Father cannot or will not bestow priesthood authority apart from the two forms of LDS priesthood authority?
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