What really happened in the 4th century?
There are a few basic options which have been offered to explain the omission of John 8:1-11 from the two 'Great Bibles' of Constantine, Codex Vaticanus (B) and Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph).
The Hortian Hypothesis:
Hort in 1881 proposed that the passage was effectively inserted late into the Greek NT in the 5th, 6th or even 7th century. He conceded but downplayed the early existance of the passage, characterizing it as a floating piece of ancient tradition:
Yet the testimony of Jerome suggests that if it was an insertion, it must have happened at a much earlier date. Hort acknowledges this, but dismisses Jerome quietly in a few lines:
But Hort himself avoided this explanation (Lucius) for the Pericope de Adultera, in spite of its utility. He probably didn't want the controversy and unique problem of these verses to cloud or jeopardize his main purpose, the 'slaying of the Textus Receptus'.
Instead Hort downplayed a variety of earlier evidence like Jerome's, and pressed for a different description of events:
It does little to protest that most of this activity was conducted in Latin, for that was the lingua franca (common language) of the era. The Greek language had retreated first to the Eastern half of the Empire (formerly the Greek Empire and cultural core), and finally just to Greece and Western Turkey.
The Pericope was adopted quickly also by other churches: the Syrian, Armenian, etc. by at least the 5th century. It seems to have been in the Ethiopic version from early times.
And of course, the majority of Byzantine manuscripts contain the passage. Again it does little to protest about the lateness of most of these manuscripts (10th to 14th century). For they represent a diverse and independant group of transmission streams reaching back into the Byzantine era (480 A.D. to 630 A.D.).
Although earlier manuscripts are rarer, the majority of manuscripts from the 5th to the 10th century nonetheless contain the verses. If this is a reasonable sample of manuscripts from this period, then the passage was probably in the majority of manuscripts from the 5th century forward.
Finally, the theory that the passage 'crept into' the Greek (Byzantine) texts from the West (Latin) tradition is farfetched to the point of absurdity. The Early Empire had been divided into three parts after Constantine, into West, Middle, and East. The Eastern (Orthodox Greek) Empire had become permanently split from the West in 364 A.D., when Emperor Valens took power.
After this, the Greeks ruled themselves, and remained fiercely independant from the Latins. Even Attila the Hun avoided the East, making a treaty in 443 A.D., and instead attacked the more vulnerable West. After the collapse of the Huns, Ricimer ruled as Patrician under Emperor Leo of the Eastern Empire, who appointed the Roman general as 'emperor' of the West in 467 A.D. After Leo, Emperor Zeno ruled the East, while again appointing a puppet ruler, Julius Nepos to the Western half. Thus the Greeks maintained independance from the Latin West right up until the final collapse of the old Roman Empire in 480 A.D.
The idea that during this period the Latins could have influenced the Greeks to abandon their own original Greek version of John in their very own language to adopt a 'Latin/Western interpolation' is utterly preposterous, and vigorously denied by Greek historians.
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There are a few basic options which have been offered to explain the omission of John 8:1-11 from the two 'Great Bibles' of Constantine, Codex Vaticanus (B) and Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph).
The Hortian Hypothesis:
Hort in 1881 proposed that the passage was effectively inserted late into the Greek NT in the 5th, 6th or even 7th century. He conceded but downplayed the early existance of the passage, characterizing it as a floating piece of ancient tradition:
"the Section first came into St John's Gospel as an insertion in a comparatively late Western text,..." (Notes, pg 88).
Yet the testimony of Jerome suggests that if it was an insertion, it must have happened at a much earlier date. Hort acknowledges this, but dismisses Jerome quietly in a few lines:
"According to Hier. 3 l.c. "in the Gospel according to John many MSS, both Greek and Latin, contain an account of an adulterous woman" &c.: at the close he implies that the narrative belonged to Scripture." (ibid.)
If Jerome is accurate, the pericope must have been inserted much earlier, between 250 and 350 A.D. This would be right about the time of Hort's supposed 'Lucian Recension'. Hort had previously explained the Byzantine Text (his 'Syrian/Constantinopolitan' text) as the result of a revision of Lucius (actually mentioned by Jerome). But Hort himself avoided this explanation (Lucius) for the Pericope de Adultera, in spite of its utility. He probably didn't want the controversy and unique problem of these verses to cloud or jeopardize his main purpose, the 'slaying of the Textus Receptus'.
Instead Hort downplayed a variety of earlier evidence like Jerome's, and pressed for a different description of events:
"It further appears that the Section (Jn 8:1-11) was little adopted in texts other than the 'Western' till some unknown time between the 4th or 5th and the 8th centuries, when it was received into some influential Constantinopolitan text." (ibid)
But this version of the story loses real credibility, for the pericope appears widely known and used from the 5th century until the invention of printing all over the former Roman Empire. It does little to protest that most of this activity was conducted in Latin, for that was the lingua franca (common language) of the era. The Greek language had retreated first to the Eastern half of the Empire (formerly the Greek Empire and cultural core), and finally just to Greece and Western Turkey.
The Pericope was adopted quickly also by other churches: the Syrian, Armenian, etc. by at least the 5th century. It seems to have been in the Ethiopic version from early times.
And of course, the majority of Byzantine manuscripts contain the passage. Again it does little to protest about the lateness of most of these manuscripts (10th to 14th century). For they represent a diverse and independant group of transmission streams reaching back into the Byzantine era (480 A.D. to 630 A.D.).
Although earlier manuscripts are rarer, the majority of manuscripts from the 5th to the 10th century nonetheless contain the verses. If this is a reasonable sample of manuscripts from this period, then the passage was probably in the majority of manuscripts from the 5th century forward.
Finally, the theory that the passage 'crept into' the Greek (Byzantine) texts from the West (Latin) tradition is farfetched to the point of absurdity. The Early Empire had been divided into three parts after Constantine, into West, Middle, and East. The Eastern (Orthodox Greek) Empire had become permanently split from the West in 364 A.D., when Emperor Valens took power.
After this, the Greeks ruled themselves, and remained fiercely independant from the Latins. Even Attila the Hun avoided the East, making a treaty in 443 A.D., and instead attacked the more vulnerable West. After the collapse of the Huns, Ricimer ruled as Patrician under Emperor Leo of the Eastern Empire, who appointed the Roman general as 'emperor' of the West in 467 A.D. After Leo, Emperor Zeno ruled the East, while again appointing a puppet ruler, Julius Nepos to the Western half. Thus the Greeks maintained independance from the Latin West right up until the final collapse of the old Roman Empire in 480 A.D.
The idea that during this period the Latins could have influenced the Greeks to abandon their own original Greek version of John in their very own language to adopt a 'Latin/Western interpolation' is utterly preposterous, and vigorously denied by Greek historians.
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