LamorakDesGalis
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- Sep 22, 2004
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Apollos1 said:“After those days…” ASV (reading verse 32) refers to the “days” after the old covenant was given, and thus refers to a time when the NEW covenant shall be given.
"After those days" refers to the time when the Jews have returned to the land, exactly as Jeremiah said. You read the ASV? Well here is what the ASV said in 30:3 -
Jeremiah 30:3 3 For, lo, the days come, saith Jehovah, that I will turn again the captivity of my people Israel and Judah, saith Jehovah; and I will cause them to return to the land that I gave to their fathers, and they shall possess it.
But what you said earlier is the opposite of what God said in Jer 30:3
Apollos1 said:Returning and repossessing the land are two different things. Israel NEVER got it back, they do not get it back, and they do not need it back!
Shall we go with the ASV or what you said, Apollos?
Apollos1 said:Whoever these “scholars” may be, they, of necessity, must find some reference to “land” that isn’t there in the original language, or be willing to accept the NET’s COMMENTARY as you have.
When you make statements like the above, I really can't take you seriously. If you actually think non-dispensational Reformed scholars have a dispensational agenda, then that just goes to show how far your anti-dispensationalism is clouding your judgment.
If you want to oppose historical-grammatical interpretation of Jeremiah 31, that is not my problem. If you want to deny explicit Scripture passages which specify Israel's return to the promised land after the exile, that too is not my problem. Your issues go beyond dispensationalism and beyond the scope of the OP.
Apollos1 said:Oh, I see – you want to “shift gears” on me now. Earlier you were saying they had it, lost it, and will get it back. But now you want to quibble that Israel did not “fully” possess the land. But you see, God “gave” them the land – Joshua knew it and Israel knew it – Joshua 23:14.
I'm not the one shifting gears: your quotation marks around "fully" and "gave" show you are now backing away from a literal interpretation of Joshua. You admit that Israel did not literally possess all the promised land. Passages like 23:5 and 13:1-7 clearly show that more land remained to be conquered at the end of Joshua's life. Your admission is sufficient in itself to invalidate your argument.
God did not stop "giving" the land in Joshua's day. God originally promised the land to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob and to their descendants. Moses knew he was leading the Israelites to the promised land. Joshua outlined the land that remained to be conquered in Joshua 13:1-7. Joshua knew the promise was to the descendants, which included those who came after him. David came long after Joshua, and yet David often referred to this same land promise:
1 Chronicles 16:15-18 15 Remember his covenant for ever, The word which he commanded to a thousand generations, 16 The covenant which he made with Abraham, And his oath unto Isaac, 17 And confirmed the same unto Jacob for a statute, To Israel for an everlasting covenant, 18 Saying, Unto thee will I give the land of Canaan, The lot of your inheritance;
1 Chronicles 28:8 8 Now therefore, in the sight of all Israel, the assembly of Jehovah, and in the audience of our God, observe and seek out all the commandments of Jehovah your God; that ye may possess this good land, and leave it for an inheritance to your children after you for ever.
Lamorak Des Galis
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