We both believe Adam knew what the term "death" meant. It would make no logical sense for God to tell Adam he would experience death if he ate a piece of fruit, if he didn't know what death was.
OK...
Our difference comes from "where" this knowledge came from. We are both bias with our conclusions because of our current theological position on origins. It's no surprise you disagree with me. You have no other choice if you want to remain faithful to your position.
No, this is a very basic difference I have seen here between creationist and TEs, YECs will defend their interpretation of Genesis as if their interpretation was the very word God itself. And as we have see, in defense of their interpretation even conjectures not mentioned in scripture, like no death before the fall, they will invent all sorts of bizarre ideas which must be true because their interpretation couldn't possibly be mistaken. TEs on the other hand are happy to look at a wide range of different interpretations and see how they fit the text. I don't disagree with you because I have different presuppositions but because you are making up wild claims with no basis in the text.
I have answered this question already. I believe God created Adam whole and complete as a ready able bodied adult. I believe this because my hermeneutic of the first two chapters of Genesis implies this. If this is true, then it is not unreasonable to suggest that Adam must also be mature in other ways too, including in his understanding and knowledge base - it would make good sense. I have stated above Adam was able to understand what "death" was (even though he never observed it) because God supernaturally granted Adam this knowledge to him.
Can God not do such a thing?
Possibly, I don't know if innate knowledge is possible for a sentient intelligence without a framework it understand it in. But it is irrelevant since God was not creating some abstract intelligence capable of innate knowledge, but a human being, and we don't work that way. Death would be meaningless to us if our only experience was immortality in an perfect immortal world. Not only that but the text specifically says there were things Adam and Eve did not know, the knowledge of good and evil came when they ate from the forbidden tree. Yet the knowledge you are claiming God must have given them was an innate understanding of the consequences of their disobedience, the knowledge of evil. Your innate knowledge is not only unsupported by the text and makes no sense, it goes against what we see in the text itself.
Wild ideas? Not really. Given my interpretation of the text is is a very reasonable assumption.
If you applied the same hermeneutic to Genesis 1 and 2 that I do, would you have suggested the text implied something different? My conclusion is rational considering my theological position. I can not help that it directly clashes with your philosophy.
No, back when I was a literalist, I preferred to live with the holes and unanswered questions rather than assume any wild speculation I came up with must the right answer.
I know you want to disagree with this but if you read the text literally in Genesis it is not possible to interpret the text as saying he had a childhood. This is especially true for Eve. The text literally says she came from Adam's side and was formed while Adam was sleeping. This could not have been longer than 8 hours, if that!
You probably have a better case for Eve, though there is still no indication how long was it before she was chatting with the local reptiles. There is even less evidence of innate knowledge, she did not know not to talk to Satan and her version of God's command came with embellishments, "neither shall you touch it" not there in the original command. I agree with the Eastern Orthodox view rather than western creationists, that Genesis gives us a picture of Adam and Eve's childlike innocence rather than superhuman intelligence.
Did Jesus speak Greek? When an author writes a historical narrative down he typically does so in his own language and translates dialogue into his language as well - this is for his benefit and his audiences. This is what Moses did with the first two chapters of Genesis. God really did name the first man a name that meant "man" (in whatever language God provided to be the first language) and this man actually did name his created wife "mother of all" in this language as well. There is no way to prove what this language was. I just find it a bit illogical to suggest it was the same Hebrew that Moses penned the Pentateuch with.
You mean Moses made us the all the names 'Adam', 'Eve', 'Cain' and 'Seth', that they were not actual names Abraham, Isaac or any of the Israelites coming out of Egypt would have heard of or recognised? Wow. That is radical Jig, but not very literal, the text says that is what their
names were. The problem is, while translators will translate words, names are transliterated. The New Testament talks of Abraham,
αβρααμ, not
πατεραπολλωνεθνων, Father-of-many-nations; Isaac,
ισαακ, not
γέλως.
