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Poll: Did Christ Die For All?

Jesus DID NOT shed his blood for all men.

  • True.

  • False.

  • Not sure.


Results are only viewable after voting.
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Maximus

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I cannot engage in debate here, since I am not a Protestant, so I won't.

I voted false.

What a sad sad thing that some believe that Jesus did not die for all people. Are they reading the same Bible I am reading?

"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself a ransom for ALL, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim. 2:3-6; emphasis mine).

Respond as you will; this is your forum. I will not reply.

Lord have mercy.
 
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Reformationist

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Shelb5 said:
Sufficientness, effectiveness, efficaciousness, none of the things effect God’s will, they have no baring on his will.

A couple of things. First, "sufficiency, effectiveness and efficacy" are ADJECTIVES. They are not "things." Each of those words describe God's sovereign control of His creation. God doesn't need "sufficiency." He is sufficient. He doesn't need "effectiveness." He is effective. He doesn't need "efficacy." He is efficacious. Again, these are adjectives, not "things" so to say that God doesn't need any of them makes no sense whatsoever. Second, :eek: :eek: :eek:???!!! God sovereign purpose isn't sufficient to bring about His Will? God doesn't need to be effective or efficacious in accomplishing His Will? If you don't believe God's ability to accomplish what He sets out to accomplish is a direct reflection of His omnipotence then how in the world can you believe anything that God has promised? If we had that frame of mind about God then nothing in the Gospel would mean anything. For that matter, everything God said He would accomplish could be nothing more than a a failure. That is the image of God that you are comfortable with?

He does need a darn thing; including these in order to make his will happen.

Do you mean "He doesn't need a darn thing, including these, in order to make His Will happen" or do you actually mean "He does need a darn thing...?" :scratch:

It is effective because he said it is.

So God is effective in whatsoever He sets out to accomplish?

He willed it to be and how many are saved does not dictate whether or not it was effective. If God deems it effective even if only one soul is saved by it, then so be it.

God is not, NOR CAN HE BE, arbitrary. The only way I could acknowledge this illogical statement as the Truth is if you qualified it by saying that God, because He is effective in accomplishing whatsoever He purposes, only planned on saving that one soul. If, instead, you mean that God's divine purpose in sending His Son was the salvation of every single soul ever created and yet He only saved one soul then the best I can say is that I truly am sorry that you have such a impotent image of God and I will pray for you.

God bless
 
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Reformationist

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Maximus said:
I cannot engage in debate here, since I am not a Protestant, so I won't.

I voted false.

What a sad sad thing that some believe that Jesus did not die for all people. Are they reading the same Bible I am reading?

Umm....actually, no, we're not reading the same Bible.

"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself a ransom for ALL, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim. 2:3-6; emphasis mine).

Just for those future non-Protestant posters that feel the necessity to come in and drop your opinions and then bail I have to ask, "why?" Why even post if you're not going to discuss this? If the reason you're not discussing this is because you feel that it would be contrary to the rules then it still makes no sense why you comment at all.

Anyway, if you do read this and decide that you wish to further discuss this, I have a question. You quote Scripture as saying, "who gave Himself a ransom for ALL, to be testified in due time" so it seems to beg the question, what ransom did He pay for those who aren't saved? Did the ransom come with some clause of returning to Christ that which didn't actually ransom someone? IOW, let's say that Christ pays a ransom for Billy Bob but Billy Bob rejects the Gospel and thus, rejects Christ. Did Christ get that ransom back? According to your view, the ransom was actually paid for Billy Bob, right? So, if Christ paid the ransom and Billy Bob still ended up going to hell, what did the ransom that Christ paid accomplish? :scratch: :confused:

God bless
 
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Benedicta00

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...necessity to come in and drop your opinions and then bail I have to ask, "why?"...



Because we're not allowed to and if we try to 'discuss' some [not you] want to call the cops [mods] on us.

Besides I figure if you wanted further discussion with us would you post your questions in the IDD or OBOB forum.

We just give our take on the matter in the spirit of just exchanging views and ideas, not really to start something. This type of poll, I don’t see why Catholics can’t comment seeing it’s not a catholic vs. Protestants thing but free will vs. not so free will.
 
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Benedicta00

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Reformationist said:
A couple of things. First, "sufficiency, effectiveness and efficacy" are ADJECTIVES. They are not "things." Each of those words describe God's sovereign control of His creation. God doesn't need "sufficiency." He is sufficient. He doesn't need "effectiveness." He is effective. He doesn't need "efficacy." He is efficacious. Again, these are adjectives, not "things" so to say that God doesn't need any of them makes no sense whatsoever. Second, :eek: :eek: :eek:???!!! God sovereign purpose isn't sufficient to bring about His Will? God doesn't need to be effective or efficacious in accomplishing His Will? If you don't believe God's ability to accomplish what He sets out to accomplish is a direct reflection of His omnipotence then how in the world can you believe anything that God has promised? If we had that frame of mind about God then nothing in the Gospel would mean anything. For that matter, everything God said He would accomplish could be nothing more than a a failure. That is the image of God that you are comfortable with?



Do you mean "He doesn't need a darn thing, including these, in order to make His Will happen" or do you actually mean "He does need a darn thing...?" :scratch:



So God is effective in whatsoever He sets out to accomplish?



God is not, NOR CAN HE BE, arbitrary. The only way I could acknowledge this illogical statement as the Truth is if you qualified it by saying that God, because He is effective in accomplishing whatsoever He purposes, only planned on saving that one soul. If, instead, you mean that God's divine purpose in sending His Son was the salvation of every single soul ever created and yet He only saved one soul then the best I can say is that I truly am sorry that you have such a impotent image of God and I will pray for you.

God bless

Don,

If you want me to answer you'll have to post this in IDD or OBOB because I am not 'allowed' to answer you in here so to speak.
 
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CCWoody

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Shelb5 said:
Don,

If you want me to answer you'll have to post this in IDD or OBOB because I am not 'allowed' to answer you in here so to speak.

Well, you should all blame Andrew. He is the one who posted this in the Reformed room. I'd have posted it on the IDD, as you suggested.

I'm currently consolidating several of my arguments on 1 Ti 2:4. If you care to wait, I'll post it when I'm finished. However, I don't promise to have it up today or tomorrow.

If not, then I'll just store it for easy reference....

Your friendly neighborhood Cordial Calvinist
Woody.
 
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Reformationist

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Shelb5 said:
Because we're not allowed to and if we try to 'discuss' some [not you] want to call the cops [mods] on us.

I'm sure that there are some that do that for malicious reasons but, from what I've seen, most who report Catholic posts in this forum do so because many of the Catholics who post in this forum support their opinions with sources that the Protestant community gives no authority to and then they assume that the fact that the Pope or the Catholic church's ruling body said something that should settle it.

Besides I figure if you wanted further discussion with us would you post your questions in the IDD or OBOB forum.

Well, I'm not sure how to use the IDD forum anymore and as for the OBOB forum, well, on the occasions that I have engaged in discussions there they almost always end up being and issue of the same thing that happens here to Catholics. That is, if I debate with the accepted Catholic position then I am just told that I can't debate it because I am debating the accepted Catholic position.

We just give our take on the matter in the spirit of just exchanging views and ideas, not really to start something.

I see no problem with that.

This type of poll, I don’t see why Catholics can’t comment seeing it’s not a catholic vs. Protestants thing but free will vs. not so free will.

As I said, I see no reason why we can't discuss this. Obviously this forum does not allow for Catholics to debate using Catholic sources as "proof positive" but I don't see any reason why you can't give your opinon. I would rather you did give your opinon. I'd just rather you didn't bail after you did so.

God bless
 
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Benedicta00

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Don,

What do you mean by you don't now how IDD works anymore?

Anyway, I'll begin with out bringing the Church into this to much, I'll just stick with the free will issue.

I do not see why God is not every bit as sovereign if he intended that Jesus' death was for anyone who would accept it freely.

I know, I know you say that it is for those who accepts it freely after God gives them grace to, but why IF HE ORDAINS AND IT IS HIS WILL can't he give us all suffient grace for us to choose him, even if some won't?

It just seems to me that you are putting God in a box by saying that if he doesn't make it where your saved, signed sealed and delivered, he has no power then. He can give us freedom and still be powerful, can't he?

He can come and die if he wants and have some choose to turn salvation down, can't he if he wanted to?
 
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Reformationist

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Shelb5 said:
Don,

What do you mean by you don't now how IDD works anymore?

I'm talking about the "formal debate" areas. Are we still allowed to start informal debates there?

I do not see why God is not every bit as sovereign if he intended that Jesus' death was for anyone who would accept it freely.

That is what He intended. However, in saying that you have just said that God did not intend it for everyone but rather only for those "who would accept it freely."

Now, who will accept it "freely?" And, why will they "freely" accept it?

I know, I know you say that it is for those who accepts it freely after God gives them grace to, but why IF HE ORDAINS AND IT IS HIS WILL can't he give us all suffient grace for us to choose him, even if some won't?

I'm sorry Michelle. I don't understand. How can the grace be sufficient and not accomplish what God ordains? That is a contradiction. It is either accomplishes what is intended because it is sufficient or it does not accomplish what is intended because it is not sufficient. It can't be sufficient and not accomplish what what He intends.

It just seems to me that you are putting God in a box by saying that if he doesn't make it where your saved, signed sealed and delivered, he has no power then.

I don't believe that is the only way God could have accomplished His Plan. I just believe that God did purpose that His children be "saved, signed, sealed and delivered" and His is able to accomplish what He purposed.

He can give us freedom and still be powerful, can't he?

He gives us freedom and He is still all powerful so I guess the answer is "yes."

He can come and die if he wants and have some choose to turn salvation down, can't he if he wanted to?

Yes. In fact, that is exactly what His Plan included. It is the grace of God that causes man to embrace Him and if He does not give fallen man that grace then he "turns salvation down" because rebellion is fallen man's natural disposition toward the things of God, to include salvation.

God bless
 
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Benedicta00

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Reformationist said:
I'm talking about the "formal debate" areas. Are we still allowed to start informal debates there?

Yes you can. Nothing has changed, the new debates were just added on.



That is what He intended. However, in saying that you have just said that God did not intend it for everyone but rather only for those "who would accept it freely."

Now, who will accept it "freely?" And, why will they "freely" accept it?

Because God will give them the grace to choose him but the person has to respond. It is a two way street and I do not see that has God not being the one calling the shots because he wants to do it that way.



I'm sorry Michelle. I don't understand. How can the grace be sufficient and not accomplish what God ordains?

The question would be what is it sufficient for? Guaranteeing salvation or opening up the gates of mercy for all who wants to come in.

That is a contradiction. It is either accomplishes what is intended because it is sufficient or it does not accomplish what is intended because it is not sufficient. It can't be sufficient and not accomplish what what He intends.

Maybe God never intended for all to be saved because he knew they wouldn’t, but that still doesn't mean he had to only give grace to a certain few, if he willed, he could give grace and have it be sufficient and not have it depending on whether or not the person was saved in the end or not in order for it to be sufficient.

I think that it is wrong to assume that the sufficiency depends on whether or not someone will be saved in the end. The grace did its job by allowing mercy to fall on the sinner. It's sufficiency has nothing IMO to do with whether or not he'll reject it. Doesn't God requiring the person to be saved if he gave them grace makes God depend on us and not us depending him?



I don't believe that is the only way God could have accomplished His Plan. I just believe that God did purpose that His children be "saved, signed, sealed and delivered" and His is able to accomplish what He purposed.

But he could have us be free, all of us, unbelieving and believing if he willed it.


He gives us freedom and He is still all powerful so I guess the answer is "yes."

But if he willed couldn't he give unconditional freedom? Couldn't he open up the gates of mercy and let all in who wanted to come in with out a condition attached to it?


Yes. In fact, that is exactly what His Plan included. It is the grace of God that causes man to embrace Him and if He does not give fallen man that grace then he "turns salvation down" because rebellion is fallen man's natural disposition toward the things of God, to include salvation.

But why does God have to reframe from giving all men grace, why can't he, if he desires all to be saved? That contradicts him IMO because it is saying he desires them to be saved but is helpless to do it because he choose man to not be free. It’s like him creating a rock to big for him to lift.

God bless

You to!
 
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Reformationist

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Shelb5 said:
Yes you can. Nothing has changed, the new debates were just added on.

Oh. Thanks.

Because God will give them the grace to choose him but the person has to respond. It is a two way street and I do not see that has God not being the one calling the shots because he wants to do it that way.

This is the line of reasoning that always confuses me. You say that those who freely accept the gift of God do so "BECAUSE God will give them the grace to choose Him" but you completely contradict that by saying that man's doesn't choose God BECAUSE God gives them the grace but rather because they choose to respond to it. In other words, you avoided the question. So, I'll ask it in a more pointed way. Why do some, who receive the grace of God, respond positively to the message of the Gospel while others, who also receive the grace of God, respond negatively to the message of the Gospel? Is the same grace given to both those who respond positively and those who respond negatively?

The question would be what is it sufficient for? Guaranteeing salvation or opening up the gates of mercy for all who wants to come in.

Okay. I'm pretty sure you don't believe that the grace of God is sufficient to "guarentee salvation" so you must believe that it is sufficient to "open the gates of mercy for all who want to come in." So, why do some want to come in and some don't? Did God give a special measure of grace to some that He didn't give to others?

Maybe God never intended for all to be saved because he knew they wouldn’t, but that still doesn't mean he had to only give grace to a certain few, if he willed, he could give grace and have it be sufficient and not have it depending on whether or not the person was saved in the end or not in order for it to be sufficient.

Michelle, God does give a measure of grace to all people. What He does not give to all people is the same measure of grace. Here again you make a nonsense statement. You say God could "give grace and have it be sufficient" but "not have it depending on whether or not the person was saved in the end or not in order for it to be sufficient." If it's not sufficient to bring about salvation then what is it sufficient to accomplish?

I think that it is wrong to assume that the sufficiency depends on whether or not someone will be saved in the end. The grace did its job by allowing mercy to fall on the sinner. It's sufficiency has nothing IMO to do with whether or not he'll reject it.

Okay. Let's look at this logically. You say God gives sufficient grace to someone who rejects that sufficient grace. What, pray tell, was it sufficient to accomplish?

Doesn't God requiring the person to be saved if he gave them grace makes God depend on us and not us depending him?

Huh??!! God doesn't "require us to be saved." He saves us. What are you trying to convey here? Are you asking if salvation is something that God requires of us or do you believe that salvation is something that God gives us?

But he could have us be free, all of us, unbelieving and believing if he willed it.

Maybe you could explain how you are using the word "free." Do you mean "free" as in "autonomous?" Do you mean "free" as in "not coerced?" Do you mean "free" as in "morally free to choose between all the available moral choices?"

But if he willed couldn't he give unconditional freedom?

Our freedom is always and in every way limited by God's sovereign dominion as our Creator. We are free in the sense that the decisions we make are not the result of external coercion but they are most certainly determined. They are determined by our own desires. This is the very essence of freedom, that a person chooses according to his/her greatest inclination. This is never unconditional. Our choices are most certainly subject to our nature and what we desire.

Couldn't he open up the gates of mercy and let all in who wanted to come in with out a condition attached to it?

First off, neither you nor I believe that there are no conditions to be saved. At the very least we believe that faith is necessary for salvation. So, the concept of "without a condition attached" is a moot discussion. "Could" God have accomplished our salvation another way? Sure, as long as it did not violate His nature. He could not give His Law, which says that the "wages of sin is death," and then just arbitrarily disregard His own Law. But yes, I imagine that God could have accomplished our salvation another way.

But why does God have to reframe from giving all men grace, why can't he, if he desires all to be saved?

It is His grace so He could, and most certainly does, give it to whom it pleases Him to give it. Again, this is not an arbitrary or random choice. It is also not a reason that has been revealed to us any more clearly than it was according to His own good pleasure.

That contradicts him IMO because it is saying he desires them to be saved but is helpless to do it because he choose man to not be free. It’s like him creating a rock to big for him to lift.

Michelle, this seems to be operating from the standpoint that God's greatest desire is the salvation of all people. It just isn't and the Bible conveys that numerous times. Yes, God is a benevolent God and does not take delight in the necessary death of the wicked (unsaved) but, make no mistake, it absolutely does glorify Him to punish unrighteousness.

Please answer a question for me. Have you ever acted contrary to your greatest desire when it was your greatest desire? IOW, can you give an example of a time that you did not choose your greatest desire or inclination at that moment?

Thanks,
God bless
 
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Andrew

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He didn't bear the sins of every man and woman. Because if He did, then all would be counted righteous in Christ.

Okay lets say your statement is true. Let's say he bore the sins of A, B and C only. Then by your statement, persons A, B and C "would be counted as righteous" without needing to confess Jesus as Lord and Saviour. In other words, your statement implies that people are automatically saved as long as their sins have been borne by Christ, bcos you say that if Christ bore all men's sins, then all men are counted righteous. Which would mean there is no need for preaching and believing.

So, Christ did die for all, but that work must be accepted by us (believe, receive, confess) in order for it to be effective.

The problem: If Christ bore the sins of, atoned for the sins of, and died for the sins of all people, then all are saved, becasueall have had the penalty for their sins atoned for.

As mentioned, salvation is not automatic, or there would be no need for praching to the lost and believing. Even in the passover night, the blood had to be applied on the doorpost. Those who said they believed had to still apply the blood. Paul said that if you confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord and believe...."

Christ did die for sinners. All men are sinners. But Christ did not die intending to save ALL sinners.

can you see how you are contradicting yourself? You say he died for sinners who are all men (all men are sinners) but he did not intend to save all? so why did he die for all then???

The people that Christ saved were fallen men. Angels are sinners. Christ did not die for fallen angels.

We all know that when the Bible talks about sinners, its talking about man, not angels.

Nor did He die for all sinners of men. It is the TYPE of people that Christ died for.

"TYPE of people". Now that is plainly adding to and twisting scripture. Just what "TYPE" of people are the scriptures refering to when it says "every", "all men", "the whole world" etc. Jews? Calvinists? Germans?
 
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Bastoune

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I can't debate on here, but I want all of you to bear in mind one thing: Jesus wasn't speaking in English! So get to a good Greek-English lexicon and work out the "many" debate.

Some verses to think about while working this out:

1 Cor. 15:22 - in Adam all (in Greek: "pantes") have died, and in Christ all ("pantes") shall live. This proves that "all" does not mean "every single one." This is because not all have died (such as Enoch and Elijah who were taken up to heaven), and not all will go to heaven (because Jesus said so).

Rom. 5:12 - Paul says that death spread to all ("pantes") men. Again, this proves that "all" does not mean "every single one" because death did not spread to all men (as we have seen with Enoch and Elijah).

Rom. 5:19 - here Paul says "many (not all) were made sinners." Paul uses "polloi," not "pantes." Is Paul contradicting what he said in Rom. 3:23? Of course not. Paul means that all are subject to original sin, but not all reject God.

I could provide some Catholic links to shed light on this debate (which we settled some 2,000 years ago ;) ) but I'll let you guys research this yourselves.
 
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Reformationist

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Andrew said:
Ok 28 votes of which 22 (Shelb made a mistake) said Christ died for all. That's 3 times more than those who said Christ did not die for all!

:clap: :clap: :clap:

And this proves what, that the majority are right? :rolleyes: There are way more than 3 times as many anthropocentric evangelicals on this MB than orthodox reformed so the results come as no suprise to me, especially considering you include the Catholic position.

I certainly hope you don't think this in any way proves that your belief is biblically accurate. That's right along the lines of saying that I'm right because I'm older or my church is right because it's views are older.
 
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Benedicta00

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Reformationist said:
This is the line of reasoning that always confuses me. You say that those who freely accept the gift of God do so "BECAUSE God will give them the grace to choose Him" but you completely contradict that by saying that man's doesn't choose God BECAUSE God gives them the grace but rather because they choose to respond to it.

No. It's not a contradiction. God gives all men grace. He may not give them all the same grace and he even Predestines some to heaven. We believe [Catholic's teach] predestination.

God has predestine some to heaven but he has a plan for everyone, the BVM is one example. He has predestine certain prophets like Moses etc to do just what they did. It is not something like it was up to them if they respond so the salvation of the world depended on them.

God did raise up certain people and predestined them to do what he intend them to do, we know but that does not at all mean that he neglected to even give someone else enough grace where they would be able to accept Christ's death and resurrection.

You see, he places all of us with out exception in the place where we can come to know him, believing and unbelieving so they have no excuse if they were to follow the path that God has put them on. They however are free to ignore him and do what they want which leads to hardness of heart.

What ever grace he gives in what ever way, it is not one size grace fits all. The grace he gives you is sufficient for you to be able to follow his plan and be saved, the grace he gives to another may be extraordinary like those that he gives to his saints where they are destine for sanctity or sainthood.

In other words, you avoided the question. So, I'll ask it in a more pointed way. Why do some, who receive the grace of God, respond positively to the message of the Gospel while others, who also receive the grace of God, respond negatively to the message of the Gospel? Is the same grace given to both those who respond positively and those who respond negatively?

The grace my not be the same and he may not have the same plan for everybody but what ever grace he gives to whatever person is sufficient for them to respond to God's chosen plan, if the do not then they are the reprobates.

It is free will, we are free to choose him because he gives us grace to but we believe we are also free to turn him down because we are also free to do that to.


Okay. I'm pretty sure you don't believe that the grace of God is sufficient to "guarentee salvation"

Not guarantee salvation so much as to guarantee his plan for us that will guarantee us salvation if we stick with God's plan. He predestine us to heaven by his plan that he has for us but we have to follow his plan and give ourselves over to it, if we do, then we are on the road to salvation if we take a different route than the one God has picked out for us then we are on the road to hell and that is not hs fault.

so you must believe that it is sufficient to "open the gates of mercy for all who want to come in." So, why do some want to come in and some don't? Did God give a special measure of grace to some that He didn't give to others?

Yeah, I believe that God opened up the gates of mercy because of the sacrifice that his son has made for all of mankind. God saw that his son, the perfect lamb with out blemish died for all the sins of this world and for the sin of Adam. So he opened up the gates of his mercy and who ever partakes in his mercy is forgiven.

If some do not want to come in, it has nothing to do with it being insufficient or because that sacrifice was not for them, it is because they are not following God's plan of salvation for them in their own lives.


Michelle, God does give a measure of grace to all people. What He does not give to all people is the same measure of grace.

You'll have to ask him. I assume it is because he has a certain plan for some where he predestines them to do just what they do and others Like Jacob and Esau where he loved Jacob and predestined him and he hated Esau and did not.

It still doesn’t mean the he predestined Esau to hell or that he just let him go to hell because he didn't save him from it, it just means that he had a much different plan for Jacob so he preferred him in that way. Why Jacob and not Esau, why not the other way around, only God know's why he does what he does.

We all have a plan on our lives and God puts us right where he wants us but some will not follow his plan and some will, because we are all free to obey or disobey God.

Here again you make a nonsense statement. You say God could "give grace and have it be sufficient" but "not have it depending on whether or not the person was saved in the end or not in order for it to be sufficient." If it's not sufficient to bring about salvation then what is it sufficient to accomplish?

It is sufficient to bring about salvation if the person applied it to his or her life and follow God in all things. If the person did not obey God and did their own thing does that mean that God failed the person in some way or does it mean that the person failed themselves because they choose not to accept his sufficient grace.


Okay. Let's look at this logically. You say God gives sufficient grace to someone who rejects that sufficient grace. What, pray tell, was it sufficient to accomplish?

Why would rejection make the grace insufficient, I do not understand?

If I gave you, not just offered you the money to pay your rent and you did not pay your rent but instead you tore up the check or you spent the money on something else does that mean I was insufficient or does that mean you were insufficient?

I mean I could go and pay it for you because I can't trust you to pay it for yourself or because I want to be the one totally in control of your life but that would mean that it is a slave-master relationship where you had no freedom to follow me out of love, you would be following me because you had no choice, I took away your choice.

If I followed you on trust, then that is truly a equal relationship one not based on works, if I do x y and z correctly and you did x y and z for me to insure I did it correctly then it is not authentic trust and love.

And let's say you gave me the money and I did just what you trusted me to do, how would you look at me then? The relationship would be as good as it could be but if you take away that trust and treat me as if I can't obey you on my own then would you still look at me the same?

Huh??!! God doesn't "require us to be saved." He saves us. What are you trying to convey here? Are you asking if salvation is something that God requires of us or do you believe that salvation is something that God gives us?

What I am saying is if we are elected and given grace irresistible he is still depending on us isn’t he, to bare fruit and obey? And once your given the grace that you can only say yes to because your nature has undergone a radical change, God is still depending on you to be obedient because if your not then that means he did not really save you then.


Maybe you could explain how you are using the word "free." Do you mean "free" as in "autonomous?" Do you mean "free" as in "not coerced?" Do you mean "free" as in "morally free to choose between all the available moral choices?"

I mean we never lost the ability to choose between good and evil and God never abandoned us to our own depravity. He shines his grace on the individual that he created that individual to have to make good choices but that does not mean that he still doesn’t allow them to choose wrongly.

Again, I do not believe that after the fall of Adam our nature was destroyed where we have to be regenerated first and restored to perfect grace in order for Christ sacrifice to be effective and sufficient. If we're already restored to grace then why even the need of Jesus. We need Jesus because we are all depraved sinners who has no grace, not because we have been regenerated and restored to grace.

I think Jesus’ sacrifice is plenty sufficient to save us as we are with out God having to restore us to full grace first.

Our freedom is always and in every way limited by God's sovereign dominion as our Creator. We are free in the sense that the decisions we make are not the result of external coercion but they are most certainly determined. They are determined by our own desires. This is the very essence of freedom, that a person chooses according to his/her greatest inclination. This is never unconditional. Our choices are most certainly subject to our nature and what we desire.

Now that’s illogical. You are saying that the only way God can trust you to make a morally free right choice is to make it for you.



First off, neither you nor I believe that there are no conditions to be saved. At the very least we believe that faith is necessary for salvation. So, the concept of "without a condition attached" is a moot discussion. "Could" God have accomplished our salvation another way? Sure, as long as it did not violate His nature. He could not give His Law, which says that the "wages of sin is death," and then just arbitrarily disregard His own Law. But yes, I imagine that God could have accomplished our salvation another way.

Why is it so hard to accept that God chose to have us come to him as we are, sinful and fallen and accept him as he is? Merciful and forgiving? To what glory is it if he had to do something, like regenerate us and give us full grace in order for us to be saved? To what glory is it if he man makes him have to do anything at all?

This is not at the expense of his justice, his justice as been satisfied through Jesus and it is not justice for him to punish someone if they lack willful wicked actions.


It is His grace so He could, and most certainly does, give it to whom it pleases Him to give it. Again, this is not an arbitrary or random choice. It is also not a reason that has been revealed to us any more clearly than it was according to His own good pleasure.

Agreed he does select some to a certain predestination than others like Esau and Jacob but your right it is his grace and he can give it to whomever he wants, however he wants.

He presedestined Jacob and not Esua. He insured Jacob for the sake of his plan but he just didn't insure Esua but that does not mean that Esua was left for dead. If he wanted to accept God, he was always free to do it because what God did preordain for him was enough to do that.

Michelle, this seems to be operating from the standpoint that God's greatest desire is the salvation of all people. It just isn't and the Bible conveys that numerous times. Yes, God is a benevolent God and does not take delight in the necessary death of the wicked (unsaved) but, make no mistake, it absolutely does glorify Him to punish unrighteousness.

Yes but only if they are deserving of punishment. He will not condemn someone by no fault of their own and if God won't give you grace then it's not your fault is it?

He also desires all men to be saved. Are you saying that even though he desired that all be saved he choose not to save all anyway?

The mere fact that he said that he desires all to be saved means that he desires, not guarantees that all, as in who ever he chooses will be saved.

Please answer a question for me. Have you ever acted contrary to your greatest desire when it was your greatest desire? IOW, can you give an example of a time that you did not choose your greatest desire or inclination at that moment?

All the time. My desire sometimes is to sin [“I do what I don’t want and I don’t do what I do want.”] but my faith tells me that I have been saved by grace, I do not have to sin because I have the love of Jesus in my heart, meaning I do not have to like the choice to be obedient because of the consequence of original sin, I do not choose God because of me, I choose him because it is not me living for me anymore but because it is Jesus living in me. He loves others for me when I do not want to, [“I do what I don’t want and I don’t do what I do want.”] and if I fall as I often do we are truly saved by grace, Jesus died to save me from my peril. He is there for me, his grace is sufficient to save me when I fall. I rely on grace and not my works.
 
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CCWoody

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Andrew said:
Ok 28 votes of which 22 (Shelb made a mistake) said Christ died for all. That's 3 times more than those who said Christ did not die for all!

:clap: :clap: :clap:

Big Whoop! The Lord does not reign by committee. You can have 10 times or a 100 or a thousand. After all, one man and the Lord is the majority.

Besides, the majority of American Churchinaity don't have a clue why they believe anything. I should know. I was one one of them sheeple. Then, when I actually read the Bible for myself, I learned quickly that I had been eating the wrong food.

In every generation the Lord has reserved for Himself those who maintain the core doctrines which today have the nickname Calvinism. And we are particularly unimpressed with numbers. We are concerned with the TRUTH! You can have your numbers if it makes you feel better. The LORD did not comfort Ezekiel with a numbers game. He comforted Him by declaring His divine Sovereignty:
  • "Yet I have reserved seven thousand in Israel, all whose knees have not bowed to Baal, and every mouth that has not kissed him."
So, keep your numbers!

BTW, I have been asking a question and the only response I have so far is that "many" = "all". Care to take a swipe at it?
  • Matthew 26:28
    For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
This is My blood... which is shed for MANY for the remission of sins.

There it is in black and white. It should end all debate, but, sadly, people simply don't believe the Lord's own words in the matter.

Your friendly neighborhood Cordial Calvinist
Woody.
 
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Reformationist

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Andrew said:
Okay lets say your statement is true. Let's say he bore the sins of A, B and C only. Then by your statement, persons A, B and C "would be counted as righteous" without needing to confess Jesus as Lord and Saviour.

I always fail to see this as sound reasoning. "Needing to confess" to accomplish what? Obedience? Salvation?

In other words, your statement implies that people are automatically saved as long as their sins have been borne by Christ, bcos you say that if Christ bore all men's sins, then all men are counted righteous. Which would mean there is no need for preaching and believing.

Riiiight, that's why the reformed community has been so active in spreading the Gospel, because we see no need for preaching and believing. Andrew, preaching the good news is the method that God has ordained that He will gather His flock that has been scattered. As people who have faith, the natural fruit of which is seeking to keep the commandments of the Lord, we are commanded to spread the Good News. As for believing, I'll assume you mean "having faith" and to that I say that the Bible is clear that faith is the means that God ordained to bring about our salvation, itself being a gift of His grace.

So, Christ did die for all, but that work must be accepted by us (believe, receive, confess) in order for it to be effective.

Christ work of redemption is accomplished, right. So, let's say we have John and Christ died for John. But, because of his heart of stone that does not desire the things of God, John rejects the Gospel. What you are telling me is that Christ's accomplished work of redemption becomes worthless to John because John rejected Christ, right? What you seem to be telling me is that part of Christ's purpose in obedience unto death is to accomplish John's salvation but that very purpose of God is thwarted by the creation, is that right?

As mentioned, salvation is not automatic, or there would be no need for praching to the lost and believing.

That's right. Salvation is not automatic. But regeneration from death to life is monergistic.

can you see how you are contradicting yourself? You say he died for sinners who are all men (all men are sinners) but he did not intend to save all? so why did he die for all then???

Yeah. That makes sense.... :rolleyes: To say that Christ died for sinners does not mean that He died for all sinners.

If I am at the ticket window of a movie theater and I tell the ticket person that I'm paying for people who have no tickets and then I say, "Okay, you, you, and you, oh and you, there, in the back" does that mean that I'm paying for ALL people who have no tickets? Of course not. It means merely that those for whom I am paying have no tickets. It's given in the same light here. Paul said that Jesus said that He came to save sinners, right? Does that absolutely mean that Paul meant that Jesus came to save ALL sinners? Well, at this point we have a choice. We can either say, as you say, that Christ's divine purpose in the atonement was to atone for the sins of all mankind but that purpose is only effective for us individually if we add to that work. Or, we can say that since we know that not all people will be saved, and since Christ always accomplishes what He sets out to accomplish, then His goal was not the salvation of those who won't be saved.

Hmmm...which one of those views is God centered and interprets the Gospel in light of the character of God and which one of those views rests the message of the Gospel on our own righteousness. Hmmm...I just wonder.
 
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Andrew

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And this proves what, that the majority are right?

The majority is not always wrong either. So the "majority is not always right" argument does not prove Limited Atonement either.

The results just tell us that most here do not agree with Limited Atonement. And I am happy to know that. :clap:
 
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