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Peter's Misquotation...

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woobadooba

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Something I noticed that I find to be interesting...

In Acts 2:17 it says:
"In the last days it will be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit upon all flesh, and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams."(NRSV)

But in Joel 2:28 it says: "Then afterward I will pour out my spirit on all flesh; your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, and your young men shall see visions."(NRSV)


Peter didn't quote Joel correctly... Joel didn't use the words "last days".


I'm not troubled by this. However, I find it to be significant because a lot of people are expecting a great outpouring to take place wherein many will have dreams and visions, and prophesy right before Jesus comes.

However, when you look at what Joel is really saying, this prophecy indicates that this outpouring would occur over a period of time, obviously ever since the time of the Apostles. Hence it wasn't going to come to fulfilment in a heap, but in bits and pieces throughout time.

I'm not denying that a revival will take place amongst God's people prior to Jesus' coming. However, what I'm saying is that this distribution of gifts as described by Joel, has been taking place throughout time, ever since Pentecost. So I don't believe that this is one of those dual fulfillment prophecies, as some have suggested.
 

davidoffinland

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Peter did not misquote Joel. Joel does not have precisely these words but he defines "those days" as being "the day of the Lord". cf Isa 2:2 & Mic 4:1.

In Heb 1:2, God hath spoken in these last days.

1 Pe 1:20, ....was manisfested in these last times.

In these two verses, it is definitely the time of Messiah´s first appearance.

The Jews divided time two ways: this present evil age; and the age to come

Hope this clears it up abit.

Shalom, David.
 
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woobadooba

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From Finland.

Peter did not misquote Joel. Joel does not have precisely these words but he defines "those days" as being "the day of the Lord". cf Isa 2:2 & Mic 4:1.

In Heb 1:2, God hath spoken in these last days.

1 Pe 1:20, ....was manisfested in these last times.

In these two verses, it is definitely the time of Messiah´s first appearance.

The Jews divided time two ways: this present evil age; and the age to come

Hope this clears it up abit.

Shalom, David.

OK, I think I see what you're saying here...

Yes, 'the last days' are not the same as 'the Day of the Lord'

Joel did speak of the Day of the Lord. But as to the events that were to take place prior, he did not use the terms "last days".

Peter interpreted these events as those which pertained to the "last days". Yet, here we are almost 2000 years later awaiting the return of the Lord. So the "last days" are ongoing and could thus span the time of even 2000 years or more...

It appears that Peter really thought that Jesus was going to return during his time.

This is a significant observation because it seems that many are misinterpreting this passage today as meaning something that it really isn't saying. In other words, those who attribute a dual fulfillment to this prophecy appear to be incorrect for doing so. Yes, an outpouring of the Spirit was prophesied to take place, but it appears that it was never intended that God's people should believe that this would happen all at once...

A lot of people today are looking for a day of revival in relation to the fulfillment of this prophecy. But the revival is already taking place, and has been ever since the day of Pentecost. In other words, it's ongoing...

Do you see what I'm saying here?
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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You are right. The fulfillment is that the last days began on the Day of Pentecost . . . at least that is what Luke wanted to convey.

Strong arguement for the continuation of the gifts of the Spirit . . . and bad for strict dispensationalists.
 
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