NewMan99
New CF: More Political, Less Charity, No Unity
- Mar 20, 2005
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Ah, so GOD had them.
And God STILL has them. I see....
First of all, you can lose the sarcasm.
You asked about the "keys of Isaiah" - you read the text. Did God hand the keys over to Eli'akim or not? Yes or no? So...with regard to the text that you asked about...yes - God had them.
So then God still has them and always has them because they are HIS keys to begin with. Even when Eli'akim had possession of the keys they were still God's. Don't you remember Jesus speaking to Pilate (who ruled Judea in the name of Caesar) and saying to him that "You would have no power over me unless it had been given you from above"? They are GOD'S keys no matter who might have *physical* possession of them at any one given moment in time...just as it is still God's flock no matter who happens to be shepherding it in God's name throughout time.
And that documents what about the current bishop of the diocese of Rome?
Why do you keep inserting the word "diocese"? That doesn't make sense. Just call him the Bishop of Rome. He oversees much more than just the local diocese.
In any case, if you are looking for a DIRECT and explicit reference to it...well...we never claim that it does. So what? There are DOZENS, if not HUNDREDS, of things in the New Covenant that are only foreshadowed or alluded to in the Old Covenant. So what? You should be careful going down this trail, because if you require explicitness in everything then we might as well ignore most of the Old Testament prophesies and foreshadowings. Would you care to apply this same methodology across the board? I would hope not.
Now, I'm wondering, where does this text say that God gave them to Eliakim and thus all the successors of Eliakim still have them to this day? I'm wondering about the 800 years between Eliakim and Jesus, as well as the 2000 years since Jesus - and those keys; what does this text state about that?
Why would it need to? Do you think the Bible needs to be read in only a hyper-literalistic fashion like it is a college textbook?
What happened to those keys when Eliakim died, according to the text?
What does this text state about Peter? And about what happened when Peter died?
You are missing the point.
Let's try looking at it another way, okay? A way we haven't talked about yet.
Now...it is our contention that when Jesus spoke to Peter about keys and "binding and loosing" that this meant something to Peter and the Apostles. We contend that the Apostles automatically knew what Jesus meant. We contend that they knew that Jesus was giving Peter the keys of authority to rule His Kingdom in His name.
So, someone hearing this can ask the question, "How do you know that they knew what this meant?"
Our answer would be, "Because this was a very commonly known concept in that culture and the phrases 'keys of the kingdom' and 'binding and loosing' would be equally well-known."
To which the person could press the point with the question, "How do you know that this was a commonly known concept and common phrase from that culture?"
Our answer would be, "Well, look to Isaiah 22 and all the elements are there - so it is not unheard of for keys of authority and binding and loosing to be mentioned as part of that culture."
The other person replies, "But that was 800 years earlier. How do you know that this was still a part of their culture?"
Our response would be, "Well, aside from the fact that most Jews of that time (ESPECIALLY JESUS AND THE APOSTLES) would be familiar with Isaiah 22...all you have to do is read various history books to see keys of authority mentioned in almost all countries in the Near East...even to this day...and...Jewish writings (the Talmud etc...) are filled with references to binding and loosing. It was COMMON. The Apostles would know immediately that Jesus was handing the authority of chief steward/prime minister to Peter because that is what those words and those phrases meant in that culture at that time."
So my point, CJ, is that Isaiah did not need to refer to Peter (who wasn't born yet) or talk about what happened after Peter's death. All we really need to note is that Jesus' handing keys of the kingdom to Peter and giving him authority to bind and loose MEANT SOMETHING in that culture. The keys ALWAYS belonged to the king - and the king ALWAYS gave them to someone to rule in his name. A person reading Isaiah 22 - or an Apostle hearing Jesus in Matthew 16 - would not wonder, "What about when Eli'akim died? Did the King of the House of David no longer have a chief steward to run the daily affairs of the kingdom? What about when Peter died? Would Jesus no longer desire for a successor to tend the flock until His return in Glory?" No. When Ali'akim died the office he held continued on and someone else - Eli'akim's successor - held that vicarious office and ruled in the king's name. And the same concept applies to Peter. When he died, the keys went to his successor.
Where does Scripture say that the bishop of the singular diocese of Rome is Jesus' Prime Minister?
Be serious. Scripture says that Jesus made Peter the chief steward/prime minister in Matthew 16. It doesn't need to mention "Rome" for the successor of Peter to inherit the special petrine ministry.
Is a Prime Minister infallible, supreme over all
Infallible? No, not in the sense you are asking. The doctrine of papal infallibility flows as a derivitive from the broader doctrine of the infallible Church. A chief steward/prime minister WAS most certainly "supreme over all" EXCEPT when the king was present. If you don't believe me, then do some time-travelling...head over to the ancient Davidic kingdom, and see if anyone dared to disobey Eli'akim. That is what those words meant: an authoritative vicarious office. And that is what those words still meant 800 years later in MANY cultures around the world. And that is what those words STILL mean even today in many cultures.
Well, what I'm curious about is how that Isaiah passage gets to the critical issue of taking the keys away to the one to whom the king gives them and giving them to one to whom the king did not. How, exactly, did that work with Elikim?
It's a vision to a prophet, Josiah. As I pointed out before, even the king has power only because God gave it to him. Woe be to the king to tell a prophet that Eli'akim would not succeed Shebna in the role of the VICARIOUS ruler of the kingdom.
And I'm STILL wondering where Isaiah said ANYTHING relevant to our topic? He's speaking of a specific situation with a specific king and individual over 2800 years ago, it seems to me.
On a legalistic and hyper-literalistic level he was speaking of a specific person and a specific situation. But that only begs the question, CJ. WHY would God tell us through His Word about this specific person and situation if not to tell us something deeper?
The principle of a vicarious chief steward ruling in the name of the king is what needs to be paid attention to in Isaiah 22. THAT is the point. Do we really need to know that some guy named Eli'akim replaced another guy named Shebna? No. But we do need to know that when Jesus spoke to Peter in Matthew 16 using certain words and phrases commonly known in their culture...the principle of a vicarious chief steward ruling in the name of the King (of Kings) would have naturally been what such words would have evoked in the minds of the Apostles and the Early Church.
God's Peace,
NewMan
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