! Peter 2:24

[C.F.W. Walther]

Ok---all you Greek students and X greek students. This verse has been beaten to death and abused by reformed and others and supposedly a good eighty percent of the NT refer the greek word iaomai {ee-ah'-om-ahee} to be a literal healing procedure even though the greek lexicons more or less agree that they have a dual meaning.

1) to cure, heal
2) to make whole a) to free from errors and sins, to bring about (one's) salvation.

My question is why the Lutherans accept the "bringing about one's salvation" as the real meaning of this word in I Peter 2:24. Is there a way that it is used in context with the other greek words that render it differently than just a physical healing process?


.

 

[LutherNut]

Ok---all you Greek students and X greek students. This verse has been beaten to death and abused by reformed and others and supposedly a good eighty percent of the NT refer the greek word iaomai {ee-ah'-om-ahee} to be a literal healing procedure even though the greek lexicons more or less agree that they have a dual meaning.

1) to cure, heal
2) to make whole a) to free from errors and sins, to bring about (one's) salvation.

My question is why the Lutherans accept the "bringing about one's salvation" as the real meaning of this word in I Peter 2:24. Is there a way that it is used in context with the other greek words that render it differently than just a physical healing process?


.

I'll take a stab at it...

It's pronounced "YA-oh-my" and the portion of the verse you mentioned is a quote from Isaiah 53:5, "But He was wounded for our transgressions, He was bruised for our iniquities; The chastisement for our peace was upon Him, And by His stripes we are healed."

In Isaiah, the suffering servant is undergoing the scourging or chastisement for "our transgressions, our iniquities." The word "healed' (which appears in the Hebrew text as "nirphah") is used in a figurative sense, not to bring physical bodily healing, but rather to bring forgiveness for the transgressions and iniquities for which the suffering servant is being scourged and chastised. Since this is being quoted by Peter from this context, this meaning carries over into the 1 Peter 2:24.

Is this what you are asking?​

 

[Melethiel]

Actually, it's pronounced "YA-oh-meh".

 

[SPALATIN]

Ok---all you Greek students and X greek students. This verse has been beaten to death and abused by reformed and others and supposedly a good eighty percent of the NT refer the greek word iaomai {ee-ah'-om-ahee} to be a literal healing procedure even though the greek lexicons more or less agree that they have a dual meaning.

1) to cure, heal
2) to make whole a) to free from errors and sins, to bring about (one's) salvation.

My question is why the Lutherans accept the "bringing about one's salvation" as the real meaning of this word in I Peter 2:24. Is there a way that it is used in context with the other greek words that render it differently than just a physical healing process?


.

The verse in Greek reads like this:

o!j ta>j a[marti<aj h[mw?n au]to>j a]nh<negken e]n
t&? sw<mati au]tou? e]pi> to> cu<lon, i{na tai?j a[marti<aij a]pogeno<menoi
t^? dikaiosu<n^ zh<swmen, ou$ t&? mw<lwpi i]a<qhte.

The word i]a<qhte is the 2nd person plural form of the word from
[Sorry Melethiel Luthernut had the pronunciation correct.] Yay oh my. It is also an aorist passive word here meaning "healed"

Tranlated this verse reads...

who our sins himself bore in his body on the tree, that, to sins [we] being dead to righteousness we may live; by whose bruise you were healed.

Now this makes not as much sense in the transliterated version so we have to structure the sentence so that it does make sense in modern english.

The ESV I believe has the best structure on this verse.

He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. By his wounds you have been healed.

 

[LutherNut]

o!j ta>j a[marti<aj h[mw?n au]to>j a]nh<negken e]n
t&? sw<mati au]tou? e]pi> to> cu<lon, i{na tai?j a[marti<aij a]pogeno<menoi
t^? dikaiosu<n^ zh<swmen, ou$ t&? mw<lwpi i]a<qhte.

Your Greek font does not show up too well...

[Sorry Melethiel Luthernut had the pronunciation correct.] Yay oh my.

In the Greek pronunciation, the alpha-iota at the end is pronounced as a diphthong, alpha="ah" and iota="ee" which produces a long "i" sound (in English, anyway).
The iota-alpha combination at the beginning is pronounced just the opposite, iota="ee" and alpha="ah" so it sounds like "yah". The omicron is a long "o" sound since it follows a vowel sound, thus the pronounciation, "YAH-o-my."

My little Greek grammar lesson for the day.

 

[C.F.W. Walther]

In Isaiah, the suffering servant is undergoing the scourging or chastisement for "our transgressions, our iniquities." The word "healed' (which appears in the Hebrew text as "nirphah") is used in a figurative sense, not to bring physical bodily healing, but rather to bring forgiveness for the transgressions and iniquities for which the suffering servant is being scourged and chastised. Since this is being quoted by Peter from this context, this meaning carries over into the 1 Peter 2:24.

Yes this answer the question somewhat about what the meaning of the word in this context is.

Are the translations from Hebrew to greek on the two words iaomai and nirphah the same in context and meaning?

This is just to clarify the age old argument between us and the reforms about their demand to God to heal them acording to this verse.

 

[Melethiel]

In the Greek pronunciation, the alpha-iota at the end is pronounced as a diphthong, alpha="ah" and iota="ee" which produces a long "i" sound (in English, anyway).
The iota-alpha combination at the beginning is pronounced just the opposite, iota="ee" and alpha="ah" so it sounds like "yah". The omicron is a long "o" sound since it follows a vowel sound, thus the pronounciation, "YAH-o-my."

I've taken classes in Greek. The combination "ai" is pronounced "eh".

 

[LutherNut]

[/size][/color][/font]I've taken classes in Greek. The combination "ai" is pronounced "eh".

So have I (koine, not modern), and the pronounciation is "ah-ee", like the long "I" sound is in English.
It's a diphthong.

How do you pronounce the word "aisle"?

 

[SPALATIN]

[/size][/color][/font]I've taken classes in Greek. The combination "ai" is pronounced "eh".

ai is pronounced like a long "i"

ei is pronounced like a long "a"

I don't know who taught you your greek but even the "Greek Tutor" pronounces these diphthongs the way that Luthernut and I have described.

I would maybe consult your greek textbook if you still have it and double check it. At this point I would take the word of my sem prof and the textbook he used over the textbook you used.

 

[SPALATIN]

[/color][/font]

Your Greek font does not show up too well...



In the Greek pronunciation, the alpha-iota at the end is pronounced as a diphthong, alpha="ah" and iota="ee" which produces a long "i" sound (in English, anyway).
The iota-alpha combination at the beginning is pronounced just the opposite, iota="ee" and alpha="ah" so it sounds like "yah". The omicron is a long "o" sound since it follows a vowel sound, thus the pronounciation, "YAH-o-my."

My little Greek grammar lesson for the day.

My apologies for the font not showing too well.

 

[C.F.W. Walther]

My question is why the Lutherans accept the "bringing about one's salvation" as the real meaning of this word in I Peter 2:24. Is there a way that it is used in context with the other greek words that render it differently than just a physical healing process?

Well I was hoping for more of a theological discussion than a greek lesson but thanks for the input anyway.

LutherNut gave me a short respoce on the subject but I really wanted to know how to conteract the reforms statements that allways use this verse to justify a huge basis for their beliefs and that is healing ministries and self-help philosophies witch make God a personal servant to their every needs. It kinda couples in with their "prosperity" theology.

 

[Melethiel]

I suppose it's a dialect thing then...my Greek book, and every Greek speaker I've talked to says it's "eh".

 

[LutherNut]

I suppose it's a dialect thing then...my Greek book, and every Greek speaker I've talked to says it's "eh".

There are some differences in pronounciation bewteen Attic Greek, Koine Greek, and modern Greek. Those who teach Biblical Koine Greek pronounce it as a diphthong - "ah-ee" (long "i"). ("Diphthong" means "twice pronounced.")


"Potato, potahto, tomato, tomahto, let's call the whole thing off."

 

[LutherNut]

Well I was hoping for more of a theological discussion than a greek lesson but thanks for the input anyway.

LutherNut gave me a short respoce on the subject but I really wanted to know how to conteract the reforms statements that allways use this verse to justify a huge basis for their beliefs and that is healing ministries and self-help philosophies witch make God a personal servant to their every needs. It kinda couples in with their "prosperity" theology.

The context of 1 Peter 2 and of Isaiah 53 clearly refer to the "healing" of the "iniquities" and "transgressions" for which Christ bore the punishment.

In the BDB Hebrew lexicon, the meaning of "raphah" in the niphal (passive, reflexive) form ("nirphah") is "forgiveness and Yahweh's blessing" when used in a figurative context, which in this case it clearly is. The Greek form of the word ("iaomai") appears in 1 Peter as an aorist passive ("iathete"), the same form as the Hebrew form in Isaiah 53, and in the context of 1 Peter 2 it carries the exact same meaning. It is used in a figurative sense because it refers to the "forgiveness of sins and its evil consequences" (Friberg Greek lexicon) because "He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree" as 1 Peter 2:24 states. We are "healed" (renewed, restored) of our sins by Christ's "wounds."

In neither case is it referring to any type of physical bodily or emotional healing. It is clearly and strictly referring to the forgiveness of sins that is ours because Christ took the punishment that was ours upon Himself. Peter's allusion to Isaiah 53 and the suffering servant makes the Biblical connection between Isaiah's suffering servant and Christ.

 

[Edial]

Greek hijack alert ! ... said a pilot of this thread.

 

[DaRev]

Well I was hoping for more of a theological discussion than a greek lesson but thanks for the input anyway.

LutherNut gave me a short respoce on the subject but I really wanted to know how to conteract the reforms statements that allways use this verse to justify a huge basis for their beliefs and that is healing ministries and self-help philosophies witch make God a personal servant to their every needs. It kinda couples in with their "prosperity" theology.

The verse you asked about in your OP does not refer to physical healing. Luthernut's interpretation hit the nail squarely on the head. (I'm impressed with his Greek and Hebrew knowledge.)

The word is used, however, in other places in the Scriptures to refer to physical healing. The healing of the Centurion's servant in Luke 7 and Matthew 8 both use forms of iaomai. The context dictates the meaning. James 5:16 also uses a form of iaomai. In this case it can be both physical and spiritual.

While I am not familiar with the Reformed argument concerning 1 Peter 2:24 and physical healing, James 5:16 makes more of an allusion to physical healing by prayer and anointing. 1 Peter 2:24 is not even talking about that. It makes no sense to use that verse to support that argument.

DaRev

 

[DaRev]

Greek hijack alert ! ... said a pilot of this thread.

How can one speak theologically about a specific verse of Scripture without making reference to the language in which God chose to give us His word?

No "hijacking" going on here at all.

 

[Edial]

Ok---all you Greek students and X greek students. This verse has been beaten to death and abused by reformed and others and supposedly a good eighty percent of the NT refer the greek word iaomai {ee-ah'-om-ahee} to be a literal healing procedure even though the greek lexicons more or less agree that they have a dual meaning.

1) to cure, heal
2) to make whole a) to free from errors and sins, to bring about (one's) salvation.

My question is why the Lutherans accept the "bringing about one's salvation" as the real meaning of this word in I Peter 2:24. Is there a way that it is used in context with the other greek words that render it differently than just a physical healing process?


.

LutherNut covered the OT part of this.
OT context is spiritual healing.

NT context alone does indicate a physical healing.
Is it?

It is both.

Healed (Strong's 2390) (no Greek scholar here ), appears only 3 times in the Epistles, 2 times in Revelation and many times in the Gospels and Acts.

In ALL cases it is to heal as from illnesses.
Let's drop off the instances in Gospels and Acts due to direct context of healing the sick.
Let's drop off the Revelation due to some unclear language.
Let's look at 3 instances of it in the Epistles.
(1Pt.2:24; James 5:16; Heb.12:13 - read around for context)

NT has certain sins causing physical illnesses.

(In Heb:12, there is a discipline of God that results in illnesses also).

It also presents that SUCH sins are resolved via the elders' prayers and a person will get physically well once he repents of that sin.

JAS 5:13 Is any one of you in trouble? He should pray. Is anyone happy? Let him sing songs of praise. 14 Is any one of you sick? He should call the elders of the church to pray over him and anoint him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer offered in faith will make the sick person well; the Lord will raise him up. If he has sinned, he will be forgiven. 16 Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each other so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous man is powerful and effective.

This definitely gets abused the following ways:

1. People assign each illness due to personal sin - incorrect.
2. People come for a healing not knowing the reason for his illness and just wanting to get well - often fails.
3. People do not completely repent of a sin causing illness, so they do not get healed. (Complete repentance includes restitution to the one who was harmed by one's sin).
4. People just come for healing without repentance - always fails.
5. People "claim" James and Peter verses to get healed - they sometimes get worse either physically or spiritually.
6. The ones that do get healed while applying 1-5, often become spiritual wrecks and get "hooked" on health/wealth gospel.

1PE 2:23 When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly. 24 He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed. 25 For you were like sheep going astray, but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls.

1Peter2:23-25 pertains to spiritual health (Isaiah cross reference) and physical health (strict James 5 reference).

Hope this helps.

Ed

 

[Edial]

How can one speak theologically about a specific verse of Scripture without making reference to the language in which God chose to give us His word?

No "hijacking" going on here at all.

It was a joke.

Debating about pronouncing a word certainly loses certain flavor as far as the essence of a post is concerned.

Wouldn't you agree?

Ed

 

[C.F.W. Walther]

LutherNut covered the OT part of this.
OT context is spiritual healing.

NT context alone does indicate a physical healing.
Is it?

It is both.

Healed (Strong's 2390) (no Greek scholar here ), appears only 3 times in the Epistles, 2 times in Revelation and many times in the Gospels and Acts.

In ALL cases it is to heal as from illnesses.
Let's drop off the instances in Gospels and Acts due to direct context of healing the sick.
Let's drop off the Revelation due to some unclear language.
Let's look at 3 instances of it in the Epistles.
(1Pt.2:24; James 5:16; Heb.12:13 - read around for context)

NT has certain sins causing physical illnesses.

(In Heb:12, there is a discipline of God that results in illnesses also).

It also presents that SUCH sins are resolved via the elders' prayers and a person will get physically well once he repents of that sin.

JAS 5:13 Is any one of you in trouble? He should pray. Is anyone happy? Let him sing songs of praise. 14 Is any one of you sick? He should call the elders of the church to pray over him and anoint him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer offered in faith will make the sick person well; the Lord will raise him up. If he has sinned, he will be forgiven. 16 Therefore confess your sins to each other and pray for each other so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous man is powerful and effective.

This definitely gets abused the following ways:

1. People assign each illness due to personal sin - incorrect.
2. People come for a healing not knowing the reason for his illness and just wanting to get well - often fails.
3. People do not completely repent of a sin causing illness, so they do not get healed. (Complete repentance includes restitution to the one who was harmed by one's sin).
4. People just come for healing without repentance - always fails.
5. People "claim" James and Peter verses to get healed - they sometimes get worse either physically or spiritually.
6. The ones that do get healed while applying 1-5, often become spiritual wrecks and get "hooked" on health/wealth gospel.

1PE 2:23 When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly. 24 He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed. 25 For you were like sheep going astray, but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls.

1Peter2:23-25 pertains to spiritual health (Isaiah cross reference) and physical health (strict James 5 reference).

Hope this helps.

Ed

Good post Ed---thanks for the extra info and yes you've hit the nail on the head about the health/wealth people.

I'm surprissed that people in this forum havn't used this scripture below. I 'm also surprissed that when we've mentioned communion and that people that haven't prepared themselves properly can not only do it to their damnation but can actually become physicaly and mentally sick.

1 Corinthians 11:29-31 (New King James Version)

29 For he who eats and drinks in an unworthy manner[a] eats and drinks judgment to himself, not discerning the Lord&#8217;s[b] body. 30 For this reason many are weak and sick among you, and many sleep. 31 For if we would judge ourselves, we would not be judged.

But that's for the Lord's Supper thread.