I
Ignatios
Guest
Could we agree that the most common Protestant view of the atonement states that there was a substitution of Christ in our place to receive the punishment we deserve, in order to satisfy God's holiness and justice? Perhaps also that Christ's righteousness was credited to our accounts, as our sin was credited to his?
(I'm asking this so I don't misrepresent the penal substitutionary theory)
If so, then why was God's justice satisfied by the unjust decision to replace the guilty party with an innocent party, namely, his incarnate and consubstantial Son? It seems that if God was so holy that he absolutely had to mete out justice, then he wouldn't have chosen to punish an innocent party.
Martin Luther didn't pull himself out of the Roman Catholic merit system of salvation, but only put a patch over the hole by inventing a way in which he didn't have to merit all his righteousness himself. This is still the heart of the Papist doctrine of supererogatory works and a soteriological system based on merit.
(I'm asking this so I don't misrepresent the penal substitutionary theory)
If so, then why was God's justice satisfied by the unjust decision to replace the guilty party with an innocent party, namely, his incarnate and consubstantial Son? It seems that if God was so holy that he absolutely had to mete out justice, then he wouldn't have chosen to punish an innocent party.
Martin Luther didn't pull himself out of the Roman Catholic merit system of salvation, but only put a patch over the hole by inventing a way in which he didn't have to merit all his righteousness himself. This is still the heart of the Papist doctrine of supererogatory works and a soteriological system based on merit.