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Peanut Gallery: The Immaculate conception of Mary!

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LittleLambofJesus

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"The reason why the verb in Ephesians 1:6 does not imply sinless perfection, whereas the form of the same verb in Luke 1:28 does so imply, is this: The two verb forms use different stems.
Greetings. Would the below rendition be pretty close to those words? We are also do a verse by verse study on Luke here:

http://christianforums.com/showthread.php?t=7289245

Textus Rec.) Luke 1:28 kai eiselqwn o aggeloV proV authn eipen caire kecaritwmenh o kurioV meta sou euloghmenh su en gunaixin

Textus Rec.) Ephesians 1:6 eiV epainon doxhV thV caritoV autou en h ecaritwsen hmaV en tw hgaphmenw

kecaritwmenh "having been graced/favored"

ecaritwsen "graces/favors us"
 
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simonthezealot

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Uphill Battle

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JacktheCatholic

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I'm just wondering what's the point? Leaving aside the question whether Mary was immaculately conceived, why does it matter whether she was or was not?

There is a lot of foreshadowing in the OT to Jesus. Mary was the ark of the new covenant when she carried God in her womb for 9 or 10 months. Because the ark of the old covenant was to be built as pure as possible it is simply a matter of foreshadowing that Mary as the ark of the new covenant would be as pure as possible too. The difference is that men built the ark of the old covenant and God built the ark of the new covenant. Since God is almighty he can make Mary spotless, no original sin and no concupisense.

Did you know that some of the earliest writings spoke of Mary as conceiving Jesus with no pain and still a virgin in every way afterwards. Beofre the Fall with Eve birth would have been without child birth pains and so that is why they wrote that Mary had no pains, she had no sin, not even original sin.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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JacktheCatholic

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CaliforniaJosiah

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My continuing studies revealed this interesting comment made in one of the Catechism companion books that one of my Catholic teachers graciously gave to me. It's in the chapter on the Communion of Saints and the discussion turns briefly to Mary and the Immaculate Conception. In the middle of page 238, I read this remarkable sentence: "The point of this doctrine is not expressly dealt with anywhere in the Bible, nor was it preached by the Apostles, and for many centuries it was not mentioned by the Church." (The Handbook of Catholic Faith, page 238)

Now, a bit later, the authors continue, "Gradually as the idea of this dogma began to develop among the faithful, theologians submitted the point to the closest examination and finally, the view then generally prevailing was formally pronounced as dogma of the Church by His Holiness Pope Pius IX in 1854."

This, IMHO, might suggest that the apologetic that it is Apostolic, was ALWAYS taught by the Church, is biblical and firmly rooted in the Catholic Denomination's own "Father" is not even supported by the Catholic Church. At least not for this new, unique dogma of the CC.


I just happened upon that in my studies and thought I'd share.


Thank you.


Pax


- Josiah




.
 
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