I have a few questions about the Orthodox teachings on marraige. Firstly, does the Orthodox Church teach marraige to be a concession to sin? I was reading St. Gregory of Nyssa on the subject, and he indicated very strongly that it was. In fact, he went so far to say that humans were created male and female solely for the purpose of procreation after the fall. (On the Making of Man, Ch. XVII). In the past I think I ran across another Father saying the same thing -- I'm thinking it was St. Basil -- but when I asked someone knowlegable on the Church fathers, he said that was only one strain of thought, and there were others. I am loathe to criticise or disagree with a saint on such an issue, but the idea the marraige and gender existed as a concession to sinful nature makes absolutely no sense to me. It seems to imply that had man not sinned, we would be androgynous. The account in Genesis gives no indication that this is the case, in fact the reason that women were created was portrayed as a concession to sin, but because it was not good for man to be alone. Peter Kreeft also has an excellent discussion of gender which shows pretty solidly that gender proceeds from God (http://www.peterkreeft.com/topics/sex-in-heaven.htm)
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And if gender was only made in anticipation of the fall, why not make humans asexual? Why change the way that humans reproduce? God commanded Adam and Eve to procreate before the fall.
Furthermore, marriage was instituted before the fall, which seems to completely contradict St. Gregory's idea it was a concession to sin.
"That is why a man leaves his father and mother and clings to his wife, and the two of them become one body." (Genesis 2:24)
This -- said before the fall -- shows that the concept of marraige as a union exists before the fall. It also shows that sexual production exists before the fall.
So I have a couple questions: Is this what the Orthodox Church teaches today? Reading over the liturgy of the marriage service, it does not seem to be. Quite the opposite in fact. Also, articles that I have read seem to indicate otherwise. So my second question is what other Church fathers, if any, disagree with St. Gregory on these points?
A second question about marriage in general is: Does the Orthodox Church teach that marriage extends into heaven? The liturgics (if that's the correct word) that I have read say that marriage is eternal, as well as some articles I have read. Roman Catholic thought, however, indicates otherwise. So I was wondering what the teaching on that is.
Thanks
.And if gender was only made in anticipation of the fall, why not make humans asexual? Why change the way that humans reproduce? God commanded Adam and Eve to procreate before the fall.
Furthermore, marriage was instituted before the fall, which seems to completely contradict St. Gregory's idea it was a concession to sin.
"That is why a man leaves his father and mother and clings to his wife, and the two of them become one body." (Genesis 2:24)
This -- said before the fall -- shows that the concept of marraige as a union exists before the fall. It also shows that sexual production exists before the fall.
So I have a couple questions: Is this what the Orthodox Church teaches today? Reading over the liturgy of the marriage service, it does not seem to be. Quite the opposite in fact. Also, articles that I have read seem to indicate otherwise. So my second question is what other Church fathers, if any, disagree with St. Gregory on these points?
A second question about marriage in general is: Does the Orthodox Church teach that marriage extends into heaven? The liturgics (if that's the correct word) that I have read say that marriage is eternal, as well as some articles I have read. Roman Catholic thought, however, indicates otherwise. So I was wondering what the teaching on that is.
Thanks
