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Origins of the term 'Allah'

JJWhite

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I agree with the principle you discuss, but I am not going to try to establish the origin the word 'god'. Woden is probably not a good candidate.

Arab Christians definitely us the word "Allah" is a different sense than Muslims do. From what I have read, the term was originally al illah, meaning the god, which is simply a recognition of the god of the Bible. It would be natural to understand this for an Arabic speaking Christian. The capitalization is a sign of respect, just as English speaking Christians capitalize god to 'God'.

Depending upon which Muslim you speak to, Allah is considered a proper noun. I would say that most Muslims see it that way. The pagan Arabs used the name Allah long before Islam. As already pointed out, Mohammad's father's name was Abdullah, which is loosely translated as 'slave of Allah'. This shows us that Allah, in its capitalized form, already had significance in Arab religious worship; so, it is easy to conclude that Mohammad repackaged the name for his own god and religious needs.

If Allah is indeed a proper noun, it certainly indicates that the usage among Christians and Muslims is in no way related. I do think that it is likely that Arab Christians used the term allah as a means of relating their deity to the Muslims who would understand the concept of al illah being 'the deity'. It would be same as early Christians using 'deus' to communicate with ancient Romans. But, if the Romans had a concept of deus being something specific to Roman culture, then confusion could exist, as is the case with Muslims, especially today when they use allah to persuade non Muslims that their deity is the same as the Jewish and Christian deity.

- When you say capital, you're just trying to help someone familiar with languages that use capital letters understand that Allah is a proper name as opposed to ilaah, right? Since, of course, Arabic has no capital letters.

- Every time I study a linguistic tafsir of the Qur'aan and we start off with bismillaah, it's always mentioned that the word Allah is a merge of al-ilaah (the god/deity)... same for when we're studying any other religious text, as the word Allah comes up a lot. Don't think it's something that some Muslims made up to try to convince non-Muslims that we're talking about the same God. It's a traditional belief we are taught.

- How many gods Created the Heavens and earth? How many gods saved the children of Israel from slavery in Egypt? I think it's pretty safe to say that the Qur'an is speaking about the same God as the Jewish and Christian Scriptures were... perhaps each group has a unique conception of HOW God is, but we are all referring to the same God.

- There are so many ahadith where Jews went to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to question him in order to test whether he was a true prophet from Allah or not. The Jews and Christians of his time used the same word too.
 
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Dylan Michael

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Considering Christians do not follow Muhammad, they follow Jesus whom clearly stated 'I am the way the truth and the life, no man comes to the Father but through me' John 14:6. No Allah is not recognised by Christians and never will be it has pagan origions, the following link may help you in your quest

Where did Allah come from?

You didn't understand. The WORD "Allah" is used by Arabic-Speaking Christians, just as the words "God", "Dios", "Gott" and "Dieu" are used by English, Spanish, German, and French speaking Christians, respectively. "Allah" is no more the proper name of the Islamic god than "God" is name of the Christian God.
 
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Nooj

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If Allah is indeed a proper noun, it certainly indicates that the usage among Christians and Muslims is in no way related. I do think that it is likely that Arab Christians used the term allah as a means of relating their deity to the Muslims who would understand the concept of al illah being 'the deity'.
I think many Arab Christians do think of Allah as the proper name of their (Christian) God. If using Allah was a concession to Muslims, you'd think they'd switch to the uncontracted form in liturgy and daily conversation, but this isn't true. Some linguistic syncretism seems to have taken place.
 
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peaceful soul

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Okay... according to our religious tradition then :), all Arabs other than the tribe of Jurhum (which Ishmael married into) are descendants of Abraham. :)

According to the Bible, Arabs existed well before Abraham.

Ishmael did not live in Arabia. He lived in the lower part of Canaan (currently Israel), the portion facing Egypt on the west--below Beersheba (50 miles southwest of Jerusalem) . Hagar, Ishmael's mother, was Egyptian. He married an Egyptian. He visited his father's grave and went to his burial which is in an area southeast of Jerusalem, IIRC. Abraham had purchased a burial ground in that vicinity. I think the site was called Machpela. The point is that Ishmael has no traditions extending to Mecca or Medina. Perhaps some of his descendants migrated there later in history and mixed with Arabs.
 
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Christos Anesti

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No Allah is not recognised by Christians and never will be it has pagan origions, the following link may help you in your quest

Isn't the same true for the term "God" ? I don't see why Arabic speaking Christians should have to give up the use of the term "Allah" just because Muhammad made use of it.
 
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peaceful soul

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I think many Arab Christians do think of Allah as the proper name of their (Christian) God. If using Allah was a concession to Muslims, you'd think they'd switch to the uncontracted form in liturgy and daily conversation, but this isn't true. Some linguistic syncretism seems to have taken place.

It is not a proper name. It is no different than God instead of god. The context of whose god is already understood in the framework of the specific scripture. The capital is for respect to the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. There are plenty of names of God in the Bible. YHWH is the closest to what we can discern to be God's name.

It wasn't a concession to appease them, but to relate the notion of the Abrahamic god to those they may have proselytized to. When communicating to foreigners, you use the common denominator to help them to understand who your god is. Would an Arab in those times understood if you said God or Deus to them? Most likely not; however, they would understand allah as a deity.

If I didn't answer your questions completely, let me know.
 
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JJWhite

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According to the Bible, Arabs existed well before Abraham.

Ishmael did not live in Arabia. He lived in the lower part of Canaan (currently Israel), the portion facing Egypt on the west--below Beersheba (50 miles southwest of Jerusalem) . Hagar, Ishmael's mother, was Egyptian. He married an Egyptian. He visited his father's grave and went to his burial which is in an area southeast of Jerusalem, IIRC. Abraham had purchased a burial ground in that vicinity. I think the site was called Machpela. The point is that Ishmael has no traditions extending to Mecca or Medina. Perhaps some of his descendants migrated there later in history and mixed with Arabs.

We have tradition saying that he was first married to one wife and then he divorced her and married another.

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is reported to have said to the Arabs, 'Be good to the Egyptians, for your mother was an Egyptian'.. we understand this to be a reference to Hagar.

As for the other details you mention, we have no tradition indicating if they ever happened or not, but we do have tradition connecting him to Makkah (not Madinah that I know of).
 
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peaceful soul

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originally posted by JJWhite

We have tradition saying that he was first married to one wife and then he divorced her and married another.

The point remains that Ishmael had nothing to do with Arabia, except for perhaps some of his descendants who most likely migrated there upon leaving the area that Ishmael dwelt in. He and his wife were Egyptian and settled slightly east of Egypt and below modern Beersheba, Israel (once the Southern Border of the Kingdom of Judah) and lived there. That is why I pointed out to you about the grave of the patriarchs, whom Abraham purchased as a burial for his family and descendants (Machpelah). It is located somewhere in the vicinity of Hebron, which is nowhere near where Mohammad lived and traveled. There are several references in the Bible that show that Ishmael traveled to meet Isaac and Abraham on occasion. He couldn't have done that if he was far down in Mecca or Medina while they were in the vicinity of Jerusalem, where they lived and died.

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is reported to have said to the Arabs, 'Be good to the Egyptians, for your mother was an Egyptian'.. we understand this to be a reference to Hagar.

OK. But Ishmael was not an Arab as you seem to imply from a couple of posts before. Perhaps, I misunderstood you. His children were not Arabs either. Like I said, it is possible that some of his children or grand children may have married Arabs and moved out from Egypt and Canaan which occupies most of what we call ancient Israel.

It is far more likely that Mohammad descended from other branches of Arabs other than what you attribute through Ishmael. As I stated before, Arabs existed well before Abraham was born. Ishmael, by not being Arab, is less likely to have his progeny mixing with Arabs and being considered Arabic pedigree several generations later.

Do you have any literature that I could read that may help me to verify your quote?

As for the other details you mention, we have no tradition indicating if they ever happened or not, but we do have tradition connecting him to Makkah (not Madinah that I know of).

OK. I was just mentioning that those things are part of the Biblical account. If you have the time, it would be good for you to read the Biblical narratives concerning these things. It would help you to better understand what I am saying.
 
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Jane_the_Bane

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Allah is a name of Arabic diety.

One can split hairs about etymology but one cannot escape from the fact Allah is a name.

The kalima recited by muslims makes it clear that Allah is a name.

La Ilah Ila Allah", "There is no God but Allah",

Ilah=God
Allah=Name

Still not a name: "La Ilah Ila Allah" translates as "There is no god but the God."
It's a contraction, not a name.
 
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peaceful soul

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originally posted by JJWhite

- When you say capital, you're just trying to help someone familiar with languages that use capital letters understand that Allah is a proper name as opposed to ilaah, right? Since, of course, Arabic has no capital letters.

Yes, in terms of the English language that I used to convey Allah as Muslims see him; but for Arab Christians, the capitalization is just a means of respect; for, it is not a proper noun--neither is God in English. It just represents the equivalent of the Christian deity relationally. The closest to a proper noun we can assign is YHWH.

I don't know Arabic, but never realized that there were no caps. After all of this time seeing Arabic, I didn't catch that. Thanks!

- Every time I study a linguistic tafsir of the Qur'aan and we start off with bismillaah, it's always mentioned that the word Allah is a merge of al-ilaah (the god/deity)... same for when we're studying any other religious text, as the word Allah comes up a lot. Don't think it's something that some Muslims made up to try to convince non-Muslims that we're talking about the same God. It's a traditional belief we are taught.

That was not what I was implying. I said that Mohammad used it because it was already ingrained in his upbringing. His father was a pagan and his tribe worshiped a supreme deity that was called Allah, which may or may not have been considered a proper noun.

- How many gods Created the Heavens and earth? How many gods saved the children of Israel from slavery in Egypt? I think it's pretty safe to say that the Qur'an is speaking about the same God as the Jewish and Christian Scriptures were... perhaps each group has a unique conception of HOW God is, but we are all referring to the same God.

To me the tricky part is the formation of Mohammad's concept of allah. From what I can tell, he first used the term amongst his family's tribe. In that context, there is not connection with the god of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. It wasn't until later when he was confronted with Jews and Christians did he try to convince them that his deity was the same as theirs. Here is where I think that he adapted the concept of allah to the Jewish and Christian god. There are plenty of references in hadiths that show that the Jews and Christians weren't buying his stories about their descendants and religion.
It just appears that Mohammad made stuff up to try to appease them. One such theme that I see in the hadiths and even in the Qu'ran is the constant assertion that the Tawrah and Injil mention the advent of him.

- There are so many ahadith where Jews went to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to question him in order to test whether he was a true prophet from Allah or not. The Jews and Christians of his time used the same word too.

Like I said, using common names in cultures isn't uncommon in trying to communicate things. In English, Muslims and Christians can use the word God as a common means of addressing deity. Of course, context of use determines whose deity being spoken of. Even on this forum, I will even use God as being interchangeable with the Islamic god, Allah, when speaking of certain general subjects.

It is also possible that some of the Jews and Christians assumed that Allah was the same, or at least, recognized Mohammad's Allah, even if they didn't still believe in him.
 
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peaceful soul

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Allah is a name of Arabic diety.

One can split hairs about etymology but one cannot escape from the fact Allah is a name.

The kalima recited by muslims makes it clear that Allah is a name.

La Ilah Ila Allah", "There is no God but Allah",

Ilah=God
Allah=Name

That is the way that I see it; however, there are some Muslims who don't think that it is a proper noun.
 
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M

MacNeil, D.

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Why do I have to? One of my fields is etymology and I gave the correct etymology for ''God'', and English word that is only as ''pagan'' as the Arabic ''Allah''. Did you read the etymology and facts that I gave you? Does Christianity mean you have to ignore linguistics?

Anyway, yes, I did read your link, which even erroneously claimed that Allah was a moon god!

But that is not the point, you think (Christian) Arabs should not call the Christian god by their own word (Allah) for God? Do you use the word ''God''? It has heathen origins too, in Old English (''Anglo-Saxon'') heathenism, and ultimately in Germanic heathenism.

No need to be reasonable here.

Ke Akua pu a hui hou
 
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Rationalt

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Still not a name: "La Ilah Ila Allah" translates as "There is no god but the God."
It's a contraction, not a name.

Then it would be

"There is no god but God."

No justification for adding the .

The quran uses the word Ilah for God as can be seen from verse
52:43

Am lahum ilahun ghayru Allahi subhana Allahi AAamma yushrikoona

Translation: Or have they a god other than Allah? Glory be to Allah from what they set up (with Him).
 
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Jane_the_Bane

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Then it would be

"There is no god but God."

No justification for adding the .

Are you nitpicking, or just trying to be obtuse? Arabic knows no capital letters, so instead they use articles to put special emphasis on a word.

The quran uses the word Ilah for God as can be seen from verse [/B]52:43

Am lahum ilahun ghayru Allahi subhana Allahi AAamma yushrikoona

Translation: Or have they a god other than Allah? Glory be to Allah from what they set up (with Him).

And yet, you just demonstrated once more how the Qur'an differentiates between god (any deity) and God (THE deity).

"Allah" is no more of a name than Elohim.
 
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JJWhite

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originally posted by JJWhite



The point remains that Ishmael had nothing to do with Arabia, except for perhaps some of his descendants who most likely migrated there upon leaving the area that Ishmael dwelt in. He and his wife were Egyptian and settled slightly east of Egypt and below modern Beersheba, Israel (once the Southern Border of the Kingdom of Judah) and lived there. That is why I pointed out to you about the grave of the patriarchs, whom Abraham purchased as a burial for his family and descendants (Machpelah). It is located somewhere in the vicinity of Hebron, which is nowhere near where Mohammad lived and traveled. There are several references in the Bible that show that Ishmael traveled to meet Isaac and Abraham on occasion. He couldn't have done that if he was far down in Mecca or Medina while they were in the vicinity of Jerusalem, where they lived and died.



OK. But Ishmael was not an Arab as you seem to imply from a couple of posts before. Perhaps, I misunderstood you. His children were not Arabs either. Like I said, it is possible that some of his children or grand children may have married Arabs and moved out from Egypt and Canaan which occupies most of what we call ancient Israel.

It is far more likely that Mohammad descended from other branches of Arabs other than what you attribute through Ishmael. As I stated before, Arabs existed well before Abraham was born. Ishmael, by not being Arab, is less likely to have his progeny mixing with Arabs and being considered Arabic pedigree several generations later.

Do you have any literature that I could read that may help me to verify your quote?



OK. I was just mentioning that those things are part of the Biblical account. If you have the time, it would be good for you to read the Biblical narratives concerning these things. It would help you to better understand what I am saying.

I wish I knew books in English that put the whole story together... maybe one of the translated biographies of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) has some information, though they don't always rely on the most authentic sources.

What I know we have is reference in the Qur'aan to Abraham visiting Ishmael in Makkah and the both building the Ka'bah together. To my knowledge, Abraham made a few trips to visit his son.

I've read the account in Genesis, but the thing is, according to Genesis, Ishmael and Hagar weren't sent off until Isaac was born, which would make Ishmael around 13 or 14, I assume? Yet there are a couple places in there that COULD be understood that Hagar carries the boy, though I've seen other interpretations. Genesis also seems to indicate that Abraham just sent them off.

We have a slightly different story. We have that Abraham TOOK Hagar and Ishmael all the way to Makkah HIMSELF when Ishmael was still a baby. He then left them there, and Hagar asked, 'Did God command you to do this?' and he replied 'yes' so she said, 'Then He will not let us be lost.' (As in He'll take care of us.) Abraham (pbuh) then said, according to the Qur'aan, “O our Lord! I have made some of my offspring to dwell in an uncultivable valley by Your Sacred House in order, O our Lord, that they may perform Prayer. So fill some hearts among men with love towards them, and (O Allaah) provide them with fruits so that they may give thanks.” Note that the Structure of the Ka'bah was not up at that time to my knowledge, but that this was Holy land. Then, I'm sure you're familiar with the Islamic story of how the baby began to cry because their water had run out (my understanding is that she was getting dehydrated and could no longer nurse him) and she ran between the mounts of Safa and Marwa to look for help. On the seventh leg of the run, Ishmael, who's still kicking and screaming, hits the ground with his foot and water starts to appear and kept on flowing out. (And Angel Gabriel appears also.) The water wouldn't stop coming out, and Hagar said, 'Zam' or 'Zum', which is supposed to mean stop, or something like that, in a language she spoke, and the well was then called 'Zam Zam'. She also put sand and rocks around it. One hadith mentions that had Hagar not hurried to sustain the water, it would have been a running stream. Then, the tribe of Jurhum (an Arab tribe.. so as you say Arabs were already existent before Ishmael) came saw Hagar by the water source and asked her if they could settle there.

Besides the age factor, which I cannot reconcile between the Biblical version and version found in the hadith (If I remember correctly, all of what I mentioned so far is in Bukhari's hadith collection, but some are quotes he included from Ibn 'Abbaas, Muhammad's cousin), the rest of the two stories perhaps could all be accurate if one knew the how to fill in the blanks.

We have hadith saying that Abraham once went to visit Ishmael, and only his wife was home. She complained a lot and so Abraham told her to to tell Ishmael (who was not home) to change the doorstep to his home. When Ishmael returned, the wife told him his father's message and Ishmael understood that his father was telling him that the lady was not a good wife and that he should divorce her, so he did and took her back to her family. Years later, Abraham again visits Ishmael and this wife is a content person that thanks God instead of complaining about everything, and Abraham tells her to tell Ishmael (whose not around again) to keep his doorstep, which when Ishmael hears understands that his father approves of his wife. Once Ray told me that he'd read a similar story in a non-Islaamic source. Ray, you around? Where did you read that?

Perhaps, the first wife was Egyptian and the second wife was Arab?

I'm tired now... I have to look for a something scholarly for you instead of me just rambling. I also have to learn to focus.. I keep telling myself and others that I have to look into this or that more and then get caught up in new discussions and forget all the other things I wanted to look up. lol.
 
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JJWhite

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This is what I could find so far:

- إذا فتحتم مصر فاستوصوا بالقبط خيرا ، فإن لهم ذمة ورحما ، يعني : أن أم إسماعيل كانت منهم الراوي: كعب بن مالك المحدث: البيهقي - المصدر: دلائل النبوة - الصفحة أو الرقم: 6/322
خلاصة حكم المحدث: روي من أوجه أخر

2 - إذا فتحت مصر فاستوصوا بالقبط خيرا فإن لهم دما ورحما وفي رواية إن لهم ذمة يعني أن أم إسماعيل كانت منهم
الراوي: كعب بن مالك المحدث: الهيثمي - المصدر: مجمع الزوائد - الصفحة أو الرقم: 10/66
خلاصة حكم المحدث: [روي] بإسنادين ورجال أحدهما رجال الصحيح

3 - إذا فتحت مصر فاستوصوا بالقبط خيرا ، فإن لهم ذمة ورحما
الراوي: كعب بن مالك المحدث: السيوطي - المصدر: الجامع الصغير - الصفحة أو الرقم: 772
خلاصة حكم المحدث: صحيح

4 - إذا فتحت مصر فاستوصوا بالقبط خيرا ، فإن لهم ذمة و رحما
الراوي: كعب بن مالك المحدث: الألباني - المصدر: صحيح الجامع - الصفحة أو الرقم: 698
خلاصة حكم المحدث: صحيح

5 - إذا افتتحتم مصر فاستوصوا بالقبط خيرا ، فإن لهم ذمة و رحما
الراوي: كعب بن مالك المحدث: الألباني - المصدر: السلسلة الصحيحة - الصفحة أو الرقم: 1374
خلاصة حكم المحدث: صحيح على شرط الشيخين


The only hadith I'm finding right now says that Muhammad (pbuh) told his companions, "When you conquer Egypt, be good to the Copts, because to them (we owe the rights of) 'dhimmah' (protection/honor) and 'rahim' (blood ties)." and a couple of the narrators added "He meant Ishmael's mother, for she was of them." The hadith was narrated by Al-Bayhaqi, Al-Haythami, and As-Suyooti and the recently deceased hadith scholar Al-Albani mentions that the chains meet the strength requirements of Bukhari and Muslim.

What I mentioned earlier was from memory.. I hope I didn't mix hadith with explanation. If I did, I apologize for that mistake. I'll keep looking today, in shaa' Allaah. Right now I must sleep.
 
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JJWhite

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Here's one more I found, also in Al-Albani's collection..

إنكم ستفتحون مصر ، و هي أرض يسمى فيها القيراط ، فإذا فتحتموها ، فاستوصوا بأهلها خيرا ، فإن لهم ذمة و رحما ، فإذا رأيت رجلين يختصمان في موضع لبنة ، فاخرج منها الراوي: أبو ذر الغفاري المحدث: الألباني - المصدر: صحيح الجامع - الصفحة أو الرقم: 2307
خلاصة حكم المحدث: صحيح

"You will conquer Egypt, and it is a land in which Al-Qeerat is called (I don't understand what that means... just translating word for word), so if you open/conquer it, to them is honor and blood ties, so if you see two men arguing over where to put a brick, then leave it."

This is something Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) said to Abu Dharr... I don't know what the details he's talking about are, but the hadith is also classified as authentic.
 
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JJWhite

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I'm finding a supposed hadith all over the internet which reads 'Be good to the people of Egypt, for with them are blood ties and marriage ties.' with the explanation saying that the blood ties refers to Hagar and marriage ties refers to Muhammad (pbuh) marrying Maria, a Copt from Egypt... but I can not find this particular wording in the hadith collections or any scholarly verdict on its authenticity or lack thereof.

I can't find the wording I quoted in the hadith collections in have available. I fear that I may have been mistaken and mixed up explanation with the wording of the hadith. May God forgive me if I said something inaccurate.
 
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