Ahhhh...where to begin???
Trying to keep this simple, the basic back-story is that I am Orthodox, my Husband...not so much. He is firmly and happily placed in the Presbyterian Church of America, a denomination of which I have much knowledge and experience.
Currently, my Husband is winding-up his 4th trip to Haiti where he leads medical and construction teams to aid in the disaster relief. In our most recent discussions, this is his way of "worshipping"...to work with his hands and his career experience as a Senior Project Manager in industry to help folk who desperately need help. Then, as relationships are built, to have shown them the love of Christ through his actions, his deeds, rather than tracts and empty words.
So...back to my related (honestly!) question:
I asked the Pastor at the local PCA Church, with whom we are friends, the following (jumping-off of Macarius' excellent posts):
The Ecumenical Councils of Nicaea and Chalcedon declared Jesus to be of two, inseparable natures: fully God and fully Man. And, it would appear, that Hebrews 4:15 and Romans 8:3-4, would be supportive of that.
But what, then, happens to Adam's Sin/Original Sin/Inherited Guilt...total depravity...as He would have inherited this from His Mother, Mary? If our human nature includes guilt for sin as well as sin itself, then Christ either:
a. inherited this sin nature, also sharing in the guilt of Adam's sin OR
2. did NOT inherit this sin nature and is not guilty; therefore, taking on some alternate "human" nature of which we have no part.
For me, it is paramount! necessary!...that Christ assumes our full and complete humanity and save it, redeems it, restores it heals it. He came as we are, so to make us as He is (into Christ-likeness: "be holy even as I am holy"). So...if Christ indeed inherited the sin of Adam, how could He also be the "spotless Lamb of God", "yet without sin", "the perfect sacrifice...without spot or blemish" for my sin...past, present, future?
So I have, like, three options (so far):
1. I resort to the sort of hoops the RCC has invented declaring Mary without Original Sin (Immaculate Conception), so Jesus can be without Original Sin. Yeah...not so much. Hardly a Scriptural basis for that; one of the many arguments I've had with the RCC and a part of why I left lo! these many years ago.
B. I claim Jesus was fully God and full Man + something other. But this, then, refutes the teachings of Nicaea and Chalcedon and historical Christianity (not to mention Scripture!).
iii. There is a flaw in my understanding of Original Sin (and/or total depravity) which makes this all moot. But, then, Augustine and the Reformers would be wrong...and who has ever heard of a(n) ULIP?
(thought of a fourth one...)
d. Jesus was forgiven of (if, indeed, He inherited) Adam's Sin at the time of his baptism: Father and Spirit were there. But then, doesn't that verge on a works-salvation? on baptism becoming the remission of sin? And if we back this up to the time of His circumcision, we have the same problem... Unless you count the time He was 12 years old and announced He was "about His Father's business" teaching in the synagogue. Would this have been a public profession of faith, thus forgiving Him of Adam's Sin...or later, when He teaches on the passage in Isaiah? But, then, He cannot claim Himself to be "Lord"; He cannot put His faith in Himself.
aiya (Chinese for crazy-girl frustration)
So... any ideas?
Thanks.
His reply was to point me to this:
Q~W(estminster)S(horter)C(atechism) 16: Did all mankind fall in Adam's first transgression?
A. The covenant being made with Adam, not only for himself, but for his posterity; all mankind,
descending from him by ordinary generation, sinned in him, and fell with him, in his first transgression.
Q~WSC 18: Wherein consists the sinfulness of that estate wherein man fell?
A. The sinfulness of that estate wherein man fell, consists in the guilt of Adam's first sin, the want of original righteousness, and the corruption of his whole nature, which is commonly called Original Sin; together with all actual transgressions which proceed from it. (And, BTW, there are no "Scripture proofs" for this...).
Romans 5:12-21; Luke:1:35-37.
Basically, the two bits of the WSC contain what I call (forgive me!) the "Immaculate Conception Clause". The inference, also drawn from the Luke passage, is that because Jesus'
Father is the Holy Spirit it either 1) negated Mary's inherited sin/guilt because the Holy Spirit is, well, Holy and more powerful, um, DNA (???) or 2) was sort of a non-issue as this is
Adam's sin...something inherited through the
Father...not the Mother; again, negated because...you'all get it...
The other explanation is the idea of Federal Headship: For as in Adam all die, so in Christ shall all be made alive (1Corinthians 15:22) Christ couldn't have had a sin nature because he was the perfected type of Adam (see Romans 5).
I later talked with our Friend, exploring some of this, and mentioned that if this is all true (and he is convinced, as I would expect), then what are we really saying in the Nicaean Creed? Does that make the decrees of Nicaea wrong? Unfortunately, he doesn't really know enough about it; Church History is his weakest point.
I know what I know, thanks be to God who leads my feeble mind into some small understanding!

But is there anyone here who has anything that I can bring to the table when I begin to open up some of these discussions with my Husband???
BTW, I am also aiding a questioning Friend in a similar journey towards Orthodoxy...
(Is there a faint emoticon???)
Thanks.