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hm? perhaps some of this professor's points could be brought up here...Ainesis said:I agree. That would be interesting reading. I would also be interested about how your professor disproved them. I find that hard to conceive.
you're welcomeHomeBound said:Thank you herev for responding to my request.
And you had some good answers, although I believe all people will eventually be in Heaven. So everything God means to happen will happen, including his will that none perish.
The Bible also shows that God can perform something that is defined as cruel or mean by our standards, although he performs them for specific purposes. The Bible even goes as far as saying that God is a creator of evil, but (I believe) for the purposes of chastening.
Isa 45:7I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.
Nothing is sufficient in and of itself. God did not write the Bible. He communicated with humans who had for years misunderstood Him. Do you think that their misunderstanding disappeared immediately? I hope you don't because even after ministering with Jesus for 3 years His disciples did not lose their misunderstandings of Him. God's final truth is not set forth in the Bible. It is only reflected in the Bible. Whatever men gleaned from God had to be processed by their human minds before it was set to writing. Funny how we think that when men speak on God's behalf they are fallible, but if they wrote thousands of years ago they were infallible.Tractor1 said:I don't dispute the fact that God has given men their senses that can give true and accurate information regarding those things God would have man recognize, but reason isn't sufficient in and of itself apart from God's final truth set forth in His Word, the Bible.
I hope that when you say "word of God" you are referring to Jesus Christ. Nothing with the imprint of man is infallible, and books certainly cannot be infallible. Infallibility is a condition of intelligent beings.butxifxnot said:yes. thank you, but we know that the word of God is infallible, while reason can be. be very careful.
For those of us who beleive in verbal, plenary inspiriation, Scripture is sufficient in and of itself. (2 Timothy 3:15-17) not only suggest the neccessity of Scripture in discerning God's will, but its adequacy in "making me wise" (15) and "equipping me for every good work" (16-17). This suggests to me that it isn't necessary for God to give me extra-Biblical revelation to know His will. Necessary being the operative term, since God is sovereign and may do anything to direct my life.statrei said:Nothing is sufficient in and of itself. God did not write the Bible. He communicated with humans who had for years misunderstood Him. Do you think that their misunderstanding disappeared immediately? I hope you don't because even after ministering with Jesus for 3 years His disciples did not lose their misunderstandings of Him. God's final truth is not set forth in the Bible. It is only reflected in the Bible. Whatever men gleaned from God had to be processed by their human minds before it was set to writing. Funny how we think that when men speak on God's behalf they are fallible, but if they wrote thousands of years ago they were infallible.
Wow. Both powerful and true. Amen!Tractor1 said:For those of us who beleive in verbal, plenary inspiriation, Scripture is sufficient in and of itself. (2 Timothy 3:15-17) not only suggest the neccessity of Scripture in discerning God's will, but its adequacy in "making me wise" (15) and "equipping me for every good work" (16-17). This suggests to me that it isn't necessary for God to give me extra-Biblical revelation to know His will. Necessary being the operative term, since God is sovereign and may do anything to direct my life.
In Christ,
Tracey
Pete, thanks for the input--you have obviously thought this out with great insight (you remind me of my theology professor)Pote said:If I can weight in... I agree with Didaskalos's sentiments. God is revealed in Jesus Christ. We don't need deceptive philosophies - he as the revealer of the Father is enough.
I believe that saying that God is omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent is thoroughly UNbiblical, and actually denies the God of the Bible. It is attempting to take a philosophical view of the living God, and rejects the way he has revealed himself.
Here's why:
God is not omnipresent. To say he is denies the incarnation. Is Jesus spacially everywhere? Of course not - he's a man. His rule and influence is absolute, and we know him by the Spirit, but he is not thinly spread throughout the universe. He is at the (spatially located) right hand of the Father in (spatially located) heaven. Maybe the Spirit is closest to omnipresent, but we're still then stuck with passages like John 1:32.
God is not omnipotent. Can he do everything? Well, he can't make a stone so heavy he can't lift it. Ok, so can he do everything that's logically possible? Well, he can't sin. So maybe he can do anything logically possible that is within his nature? Yes. But so can a stapler. Is God like a stapler? No. Why don't we just say what the Bible says - that God can do what he wants? Why must we go further than that?
God is not omniscient? Jesus does not know the date of his return - Matthew 24:36. He is willing to submit to the Father's perfect knowledge about the right time to send him back - just as he was and is willing to submit to his Father in all things. Are we willing to write off Genesis 18:20-21, Psalm 14:2, and so on?
When using the omni's are we talking about the Father, the Son, or the Holy Spirit, or all three? But the three have different knowledge. They are in different places. They do different things - the Son can't suddenly start taking on the Father's role. Yet they are united as one in purpose and action.
Thanks for listening,
Pete.
I pretty much disagree with your entire post. You're picking different instances of God to support your claims, as will I.Pote said:If I can weight in... I agree with Didaskalos's sentiments. God is revealed in Jesus Christ. We don't need deceptive philosophies - he as the revealer of the Father is enough.
I believe that saying that God is omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent is thoroughly UNbiblical, and actually denies the God of the Bible. It is attempting to take a philosophical view of the living God, and rejects the way he has revealed himself.
Here's why:
God is not omnipresent. To say he is denies the incarnation. Is Jesus spacially everywhere? Of course not - he's a man. His rule and influence is absolute, and we know him by the Spirit, but he is not thinly spread throughout the universe. He is at the (spatially located) right hand of the Father in (spatially located) heaven. Maybe the Spirit is closest to omnipresent, but we're still then stuck with passages like John 1:32.
God is not omnipotent. Can he do everything? Well, he can't make a stone so heavy he can't lift it. Ok, so can he do everything that's logically possible? Well, he can't sin. So maybe he can do anything logically possible that is within his nature? Yes. But so can a stapler. Is God like a stapler? No. Why don't we just say what the Bible says - that God can do what he wants? Why must we go further than that?
God is not omniscient? Jesus does not know the date of his return - Matthew 24:36. He is willing to submit to the Father's perfect knowledge about the right time to send him back - just as he was and is willing to submit to his Father in all things. Are we willing to write off Genesis 18:20-21, Psalm 14:2, and so on?
When using the omni's are we talking about the Father, the Son, or the Holy Spirit, or all three? But the three have different knowledge. They are in different places. They do different things - the Son can't suddenly start taking on the Father's role. Yet they are united as one in purpose and action.
Thanks for listening,
Pete.
You are essentially saying that Jesus is not an exact image of God, and that we need some other source to show us who and what God is?HomeBound said:I pretty much disagree with your entire post. You're picking different instances of God to support your claims, as will I.
1 While Jesus isn't everywhere, God is. (God is omnipresent)
2 God can create a rock that while he was Jesus, wouldn't be able to move it. (God is omnipotent)
3 While Jesus doesn't know the date of his return, God does.(God is omniscient)
That's not what I'm saying at all. What is being shown in my post is that, the Jesus that was seen during his stay here in the world, was God limited by the flesh. While The true essence of God is not limited by the flesh.didaskalos said:You are essentially saying that Jesus is not an exact image of God, and that we need some other source to show up who and what God is?
When we see Jesus, we see the Father.
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