- May 17, 2011
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So a lot is made of "missing verses" in the NIV, ESV, NASB, etc that the KJV series of Bubles includes. My question is this:
Does it really make a huge difference if you have them or not?
I mean why such a big deal over verses that add no depth of meaning to salvation doctrine or understanding?
Take Matthew 17:21 because that is one often quoted in such discussions. Jesus said this kind goes out by only prayer and fasting. The idea Jesus is presenting here is not some new idea nor is it not taught in more modern texts based off Wescott/Hort, Nestle/Aland. It is just omitted as possibly being added by a late scribe.
1 John 5:7 is another big one. The omission of this scripture has caused a big fuss as well. It is not as though by omitting this scripture, modern translations do not teach the Trinity. In fact, many many scriptures still teach the doctrine, this particular verse is omitted because it is pretty obviously not in the originals.
But on the flip side, so what if someone reads a KJV, NKJV, or MEV? The inclusion of such scriptures do not "add to the text". I do not buy into divine inspiration on these verses, but the contents still support biblical doctrine.
So why make such a big deal out of it? Can't we just agree that the most important thing is that someone should read the scriptures?
Does it really make a huge difference if you have them or not?
I mean why such a big deal over verses that add no depth of meaning to salvation doctrine or understanding?
Take Matthew 17:21 because that is one often quoted in such discussions. Jesus said this kind goes out by only prayer and fasting. The idea Jesus is presenting here is not some new idea nor is it not taught in more modern texts based off Wescott/Hort, Nestle/Aland. It is just omitted as possibly being added by a late scribe.
1 John 5:7 is another big one. The omission of this scripture has caused a big fuss as well. It is not as though by omitting this scripture, modern translations do not teach the Trinity. In fact, many many scriptures still teach the doctrine, this particular verse is omitted because it is pretty obviously not in the originals.
But on the flip side, so what if someone reads a KJV, NKJV, or MEV? The inclusion of such scriptures do not "add to the text". I do not buy into divine inspiration on these verses, but the contents still support biblical doctrine.
So why make such a big deal out of it? Can't we just agree that the most important thing is that someone should read the scriptures?