Looking at the Letter to the Galatians, we can see where Paul verily begins speaking about the Everlasting Gospel right in the very first verse:
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead; ) Galatians 1:1
Paul sets before the Galatians in verse 1, that he [Paul] is verily an "Apostle".
What is an "Apostle" if not one who has been "sent" by God with a message to bear?
What was the message that Paul "an apostle" was to bear?
The very True and Only "Gospel" itself, the 'good news' of Christ Jesus - the "Saviour of the World", "Deliverer" and "Redeemer".
Paul begins by clearly revealing that he is not an "apostle" of "men" and "neither by man", which signifies that he was sent by someone greater, and so names "God the Father" and "Christ Jesus" [being God the Son], and by implication of Jesus being the "Christ", also God the Holy Spirit.
Now what is this "Christ" that Paul thus speaks about?
The very "Messiah", the "Christ", the "anointed" of God - yea, the very "Holy One of Israel", "desire of all nations" who was to come as "promised", the "hope of Glory". Why was He Promised, what was He to do?
Paul is not writing to the Galatians alone, but rather "all the brethren which are with" him also writing with him:
And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia: Galatians 1:2
"Brethren" of whom first and foremost? "Christ Jesus" again, the "Son".
For in Christ Jesus "is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus."
And how then can they all be "with" Paul and "one in Christ Jesus" writing to the "churches of Galatia", lest they be united in Truth? For how "can two walk together, except they be agreed"?
Grace [be] to you and peace from God the Father, and [from] our Lord Jesus Christ, Galatians 1:3
"Grace" and "Peace"? What is this "Grace" and "Peace" and why was it that we needed them so?
Is this merely Paul's staple greeting with no further depth than that of a 'hello'? Surely not! What then does Paul mean by constantly repeating it in his letters [and even given by Peter in his epistles], even many times at the very outset?
Shall we not even see this at the earliest good news of the incarnation of Jesus, written in the Gospel of Luke, who journeyed with Paul so many times?
Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men. Luke 2:14
Again, Paul says "God the Father", and so those "in Christ Jesus" are all Sons and Daughters of God, and how so? Paul says, "Lord Jesus Christ", and what does he signify by saying "Lord"?
Now Paul brings the Everlasting Gospel right into view of all reading:
Who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us from this present evil world, according to the will of God and our Father: Galatians 1:4
Who gave Himself for our sins? "Lord Jesus Christ".
What compelled Him to give Himself completely for our sins? Was it not His absolute and perfect love for us "while we were yet sinners", that "Christ died for us"? Do we not begin to see how Paul is setting forth the True and Everlasting Gospel already?
What then have we done that "Christ Jesus died for us"? Was it not for "our sins"?
What are "our sins"?
What is our deliverance from?
To whom [be] glory for ever and ever. Amen. Galatians 1:5
Why should there be such "Glory" given unto "God" "and" "Our Father", even "for ever and ever"?
Has not Paul already begun to answer the question by setting forth the True and Everlasting Gospel? Why does he do so?
I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel: Galatians 1:6
How many True Gospels are there? There is only one.
What does it mean when we have followed "another gospel", which is "not another"? It means that we are then "so soon removed from him" that "called" us "into the grace of Christ".
Why must Paul then "Marvel" at these? For is not the True Gospel plain in all its saving love, and that mankind could do nothing of himself to save himself from sin, and that he needed a Saviour, and that Jesus was just such the only spotless Lamb and Saviour?
How could any, having tasted of the True Gospel ever have a 'palate' for or be "bewitched" towards "another"?
It is obvious that Paul must again set before the Galatians "Christ and Him Crucified" lest he and they had run in "vain".
Paul then sets out to clearly reveal the True Gospel as we find throughout the Letter to the Galatians:
"... gospel ... that which we have preached ..." Galatians 1:8
"... gospel ... that ye have received..." Galatians 1:9
"... the gospel which was preached of me is not after man ..." Galatians 1:11
Does, Paul, as some seem to think [as found in many commentaries], from here begin to exhonorate his position, explaining his origins, and why he should be heard?, or rather does Paul truly continue with the message of the True Gospel by demonstrating the very love, power and working of Jesus Christ in his own life, and thus the reason why he should be heard above those preaching "another"...