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NT Wright,re-evaluating Paul?

LittleLambofJesus

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I dont get it though? Is that your family.or as you texans say.."kin"?
Nope.
I was just saying how uncannily similar those 2 were to my own kinfolk.....
I emailed it to my mom and she said my brother in law [coincidentally whose name is Paul] was much better looking :D
 
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Frogster

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Nope.
I was just saying how uncannily similar those 2 were to my own kinfolk.....
I emailed it to my mom and she said my brother in law [coincidentally whose name is Paul] was much better looking :D
Gotcha!
 
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max1120

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While it may be true that Wright would not agree with me ( I will not try to speek for him ) but it is clear to me that Paul writes from a definately anti-female perspective. He does not trust women, he considers them less trust worthy than males. He makes no attempt to conceal his feelings regarding sex and sexuality. His views rule out almost any form of sexuality short of procreation and he espouses a preference for becoming a enuich over marriage. His discription of his "conversion" and Jesus calling him to be an Apostile is easy to see as a hallucination that could well be a result of bipolar disorder. For one thing he is the only person who gives an account of his "conversion" story. Despite the fact that by his own account there were others present when he had the "vision" none of them could hear or see any of what occured. It could also have been an epiletic seizure.

Paul does not fit the requirements to be considered an Apostile as given in the new testament and is only refered to as an "Apostile" by himself and his followers (Luke and Apollos neither of which were Apostiles themselves). The only possible place where his(Paul) works are spoken of approvingly by a genuine Apostile is in II Peter. As you may (or may not know) II Peter is one of the most disputed books of the bible the other two being Hebrews (which is written anonymously) and Revelations. The early church fathers found the inclusion of these three books into the church cannon VERY contraversal. In fact some of the church fathers argued against all three of these books being included. Their inclusion occured as a "compromise" where one side agreed to drop some books and acept others. Deals were made at these meetings we today refer to as "councils" where proponets and opponets of the various books and eptisles agrueed for and against the various works under consideration. I equally sure that there is a lot that went on at these councils that was never written down (bargining). The fact is that Paul's views on a variety of subjects flys in the face of what we would today call "sane" or "normal" most of us today would not say women were less trust worthy than men, neither would most of us support voluntary castration (becoming a eunich).

I know that this may be unsettling to some but I hope I have not offended. If I have offended you I appologize in advance.
 
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ebia

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While it may be true that Wright would not agree with me
So perhaps we would be better taking it to another thread, since this one is (at least in theory) about Tom Wright's view of Paul, not yours.

I would be more than happy to discuss the points you raise there.
 
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ebia

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I am just looking for you to back it up.Give me an example how the order of the reading of the epistles,would alter my perception of Galatians,or any other book that is about,or has justification in it.
I did give an example of how it might. Since I don't know precisely what your current perception is, and I cannot not exactly what your resulting perception will be, the only way we can be really explicity is if you go and try it. If you aren't prepared to do that, then there isn't much point talking about it - though I cannot imagine why someone would object to re-reading scripture.

Do you have any scripture to offer,as far as Paul's learning or evolution when it came to law/grace?
The comment about Paul having an evolving idea of law/grace didn't come from me and so far as I know didn't come from Tom Wright.

Give me something besides alot of this or that,show me.Show me how somehow I need this vast knowledge of first century Judaism to understand Romans or Galatians,to "understand" what the climate was,in order to know what Paul is saying.
Unless you are prepared to read some articles I cannot do that.

But lets look at a small example that might illustrate the idea - take the text "Repent and believe the gospel":
For a long while the Catholic church taught a meaning of repentence that was oriented entirely to the individual feeling guilty, doing penance, etc. Luther saw this was way off what the texts meant and (re)taught the church that repentence was about turning from sinand back to God. But looking at history we can go futher - Josphesus uses the (almost) identical phrase in addressing a bigand: "repent and believe in me". Clearly Josephus doesn't mean "feel guilty about your personal sins and acknowledge I exist". What he means is "give up on your way of dealing with the Roman occupiers and get on board with mine". In light of that we can understand Jesus' phrase more accurately as not, firstly and primarily, as being "give up on your personal sins" but "give up on your agenda for dealing with the problems of the world and take up mine/God's".

In a similar way but on a larger scale knowing what the various Second Temple Jewish groups thought about resurrection throws a whole heap of light on Paul and the Gospels. Understanding what they thought about the messiah and understood by titles like "Son of God", "Son of Man", "Messiah", "King" helps understand the gospels. Understanding what they thought about the Law helps understand what the position is that Paul is addressing - Paul cannot be condemning a viewpoint that never actually existed, so if he appears to be one must have misread him.
 
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wayseer

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but it is clear to me that Paul writes from a definately anti-female perspective. He does not trust women, he considers them less trust worthy than males.

Where do you get this idea - not from Paul? Paul had much trust in women and many of then carried his letters about the countryside - which was not all that easy to do back then. He sheltered with women, he had women teaching, me mentions women numerous times. Perhaps you need to read Paul letters - his genuine letters - not the one incorrectly attributed to him. While I have difficulty with much of Paul's work, his treatment of women is not what we have been erroneously taught to accept.
 
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Frogster

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I did give an example of how it might. Since I don't know precisely what your current perception is, and I cannot not exactly what your resulting perception will be, the only way we can be really explicity is if you go and try it. If you aren't prepared to do that, then there isn't much point talking about it - though I cannot imagine why someone would object to re-reading scripture.


The comment about Paul having an evolving idea of law/grace didn't come from me and so far as I know didn't come from Tom Wright.


Unless you are prepared to read some articles I cannot do that.

But lets look at a small example that might illustrate the idea - take the text "Repent and believe the gospel":
For a long while the Catholic church taught a meaning of repentence that was oriented entirely to the individual feeling guilty, doing penance, etc. Luther saw this was way off what the texts meant and (re)taught the church that repentence was about turning from sinand back to God. But looking at history we can go futher - Josphesus uses the (almost) identical phrase in addressing a bigand: "repent and believe in me". Clearly Josephus doesn't mean "feel guilty about your personal sins and acknowledge I exist". What he means is "give up on your way of dealing with the Roman occupiers and get on board with mine". In light of that we can understand Jesus' phrase more accurately as not, firstly and primarily, as being "give up on your personal sins" but "give up on your agenda for dealing with the problems of the world and take up mine/God's".

In a similar way but on a larger scale knowing what the various Second Temple Jewish groups thought about resurrection throws a whole heap of light on Paul and the Gospels. Understanding what they thought about the messiah and understood by titles like "Son of God", "Son of Man", "Messiah", "King" helps understand the gospels. Understanding what they thought about the Law helps understand what the position is that Paul is addressing - Paul cannot be condemning a viewpoint that never actually existed, so if he appears to be one must have misread him.
Quit preaching at me and show up.You made a comment that the chronological reading of the epistles would effect ones understanding of Galatians.Go ahead,take Wright's view,and tell me where I would be wrong,in what a 'non Wright" view would be in their interp of justification/law/grace.

No more lectures,show time!:D
 
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Frogster

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The biggest difference and controversy is justification and what Wright believes Judiasm is..
Yes,and from what I am learning it was a hot debate,so Wright's views must have been controversial,to say the least.I am not sure what denomination it was,but one flat out rejected Wright!
 
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dies-l

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I know what exigesis is,and I also know when somone is avoiding the issue;).Lets see what it is needed,give examples,where the clear intent,is somehow not able to be read and understood.The law was the law of Moses,613 of them,grace was grace,the law was nailed to a tree,no one is justified by law,the law strengthens sin,ceremonial laws were nailed to a tree,Paul died to the moral law also in Rom 7.I dunno..what great exigesis was needed for that?

I also know when someone is avoiding an issue by consistenly refusing to read a short article that would likely begin to answer many of her questions. ;)

But, I am glad that you finally answered the question about what it means to be free from the law. So, I assume from your answer that you reject the commonly held viewpoint that moral behavior has no bearing whatsoever on salvation. If that is the case, then I think that we have a good beginning point for the discussion.

Since, Galatians is often used to support the notion that we can be saved simply by placing our faith in Jesus, thus, according to this idea, being freed from any obligation to behave in a certain way. I submit to you that this notion comes from an erroneous interpretation of Galatians, which is based in part on a misunderstanding of what the Law is. While I do believe that we are saved by grace, through faith, I also believe that faith implies action -- not obedience to the Mosaic law, but a genuine desire to conduct oneself as a follower of Jesus Christ. A person reading Galatians from a first century perspective would understand that the Law that Paul is speaking of does not refer to a basic sense of right and wrong, but rather to the specific actions under the Mosaic Law by which one marks himself as part of the Jewish community.

Paul is certainly not saying in Galatians that we now have no moral obligation in connection with our salvation. Although this point can be understood by a proper contextual reading of Galatians, the point is made much clearer in Romans, especially in Romans chs. 2 and 6. This idea was further clarified by James and John in their epistles (See e.g., James 2 and 1 John 3). But, here we are talking about Paul. If we read Paul's epistles with an eye toward chronology, we find that in Galatians (and Ephesians, assuming that it was written around the same period), Paul is establishing the idea of salvation by grace, through faith. On way of reading the chronology here is that, as Paul began to see how the Church abused and misinterpreted this doctrine to allow for liscentiousness, he realized the need to clarify what the doctrine entailed: freedom from the Law of Moses (or any other moral code) as a means of attaining salvation is, in no way a license to behave as one chooses. Rather, it is freedom to live a life of righteousness, not of licentiousness. In fact, as he alludes to in Galatians 5, one who is saved will necessarily live according to one set of principles (love, joy, peace, pateince, kindness, generosity, faithfulness, gentleness, and self, control) instead of another set of principles (fornication, impurity, . . . enmities, strife, jealousy, anger, etc.). It stands to reason that person whose conduct reflects the latter, rather than the former, is not saved by faith in Jesus Christ. Although this point is made reasonably clear in Galatians, it is clarified and expanded in later Pauline (and non-Pauline) epistles.

When we ignore context and chronology, we face some apparent contradictions between various of Paul's epistles (e.g., Eph. 2:8-9 v. Romans 6). When we read Paul's arguments from a 1st Century perspective and in proper chronology, we find that there is no contradiction at all.

I hope this helps somewhat. FTR, this is my own opinion, not necessarily (and probably not) that of N.T. Wright. I repeat to you that if you genuinely want an answer to your question (which I am beginning to doubt very highly), you should read some or all of the articles on his website that address the ministry of Paul, perhaps beginning with the one that I have now linked to on three separate occassions. In fact, I would go so far as to say that, if you continue to refuse to read said articles, your disingenuousness should be taken for granted, and there exists no further point in continuing this discussion.
 
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Bro_Sam

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it is clear to me that Paul writes from a definately anti-female perspective. He does not trust women, he considers them less trust worthy than males.

Then why does he tell everybody that Priscilla is his partner in his ministry and brag about how instrumental she is to the spread of the Gospel?

His discription of his "conversion" and Jesus calling him to be an Apostile is easy to see as a hallucination

Well, sure, if you don't read the text.

Paul does not fit the requirements to be considered an Apostile

What requirements do you believe he doesn't meet?

For that matter, is somebody who can't even spell "apostle" qualified to say who is and is not an apostle?

Finally, if Paul's writings are the inspired word of God, then how can he be wrong about being an apostle?
 
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MamaZ

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God or Christ. The first proves too much, and the second not enough. The first is 1
Corinthians 1.30f., where Paul says that Christ has become for us wisdom from God,
and righteousness, sanctification and redemption. Wisdom is the main point he is
making, and the other three nouns come in as a way of saying ‘and everything else as
well’. ‘Yea, all I need, in thee to find, O Lamb of God, I come’; that line sums it up
well. I doubt if this will sustain the normal ‘imputation’ theology, because it would
seem to demand equal air time for the imputation of wisdom, sanctification and​
redemption as well.
Now lets look at the verse He has given.


1Co 1:27 But God chose the foolish things of the world that the wise might be put to shame, and God chose the weak things of the world so that He might put to shame the strong things.
1Co 1:28 And God chose the low-born of the world, and the despised, and the things that are not, so that He might bring to nothing the things that are,
1Co 1:29 so that no flesh might glory in His presence.
1Co 1:30 But of Him, you are in Christ Jesus, who was made to us wisdom from God, both righteousness and sanctification and redemption,
1Co 1:31 so that even as it has been written, "He that glories, let him glory in" the "Lord." Jer. 9:24



Now the way that Wright explains what he believes is here..

Wisdom is the main point he is
making, and the other three nouns come in as a way of saying ‘and everything else as
well’.
So this is just his understanding of what Paul is saying..
 
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ebia

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The biggest difference and controversy is justification and what Wright believes Judiasm is..
Sorry? I have no idea what you are referring to wrt Judaism.

Yes, what he says about the phrase Justification by Faith has been contraversial , but it's by no means as out there as one would think from some of the loud shouting. It's just that some people will defend Luther's definition to the death rather than go back to Paul and see if we can't improve on it. And some other people get on the bandwaggon rather than actually go and find out what Tom Wright actually says, prefering to hang off the lie that Wright rejects justification by faith.
 
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ebia

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Quit preaching at me and show up.You made a comment that the chronological reading of the epistles would effect ones understanding of Galatians.Go ahead,take Wright's view,and tell me where I would be wrong,in what a 'non Wright" view would be in their interp of justification/law/grace.
If you actually want to know more on that you'll need to do the exercise for yourself.
 
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ebia

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I took the qoutes from Wright from the link that was supplied by Diesl
Did you go through the paper looking for a line you could disagree with, or are we discussing the overall picture in which that quote comes?
 
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ittarter

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The controversy will come out sooner or later.You are biased,so no offense but I cant figure you to be a nuetral resource.I understand,no big deal.But really all that happened is the "pro Tom" people are here,so it creates a bias.

Why, because I'm not immediately dismissive of Wright's ideas, without even reading him??

You're the one who's biased! Look at your OP!

Honestly, all I did was go to Wikipedia and provide some basic information about the issues. I can see the force of the argument, but that doesn't mean I'm inordinately biased. I'm pretty new to the issue.

Everyone's biased. I doubt you're going to find anyone interested in the issue who is much less biased than me.

I read Wright's book on theodicy and wasn't overly impressed. He had some good ideas but lots of wishy washy stuff. Suffice it to say that I'm not a "Tom person" and again, you have no reason for labeling me as such.

Seems to me that either you just don't like me, or you're striking out blindly because of your pre-commitment to Protestant tradition. I was hoping to have some actual discussion on the issues surrounding the interpretation of Galatians, but it's clear that you're not up to it, academically or psychologically. You have ruled me out as a person who has a meaningful perspective to offer.

Shame on you. I'm done here.
 
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Seeking Him

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Did you go through the paper looking for a line you could disagree with, or are we discussing the overall picture in which that quote comes?
The overall picture, if you read what Wright wrote, is that he is diminishing what justification is.

"The gospel is not, you can be saved and here is how, the gospel for Paul is Jesus Christ is Lord."

What? The gospel is that you can be saved and how. For Wright justification is not about our being made righteous by Christ's atoning death, as much as it is about membership in the community of the church.
 
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dies-l

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The overall picture, if you read what Wright wrote, is that he is diminishing what justification is.

How does this:

"The gospel is not, you can be saved and here is how, the gospel for Paul is Jesus Christ is Lord."

lead to this:

For Wright justification is not about our being made righteous by Christ's atoning death, as much as it is about membership in the community of the church.
?

What? The gospel is that you can be saved and how.

Can you demonstrate from Scripture that this is what the Gospel is, as opposed to "Jesus Christ is Lord."? And, if we assume for the sake of argument that Wright is correct that the word "Gospel" means "Jesus is Lord", how does that minimize the reality of justification by faith? It seems to me that Wright is saying that justification is the action by which God, the ultimate judge, declares the sinner to be righteous (or in the right), much like a human judge of the first century would make that declaration about the prevailing party in a lawsuit. Certainly, this is metaphorical, but how is this metaphor at odds with the biblical notion of justification?
 
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Frogster

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I also know when someone is avoiding an issue by consistenly refusing to read a short article that would likely begin to answer many of her questions. ;)
Nope,you are ducking.You never showed how the chronological order of reading the epistles,would affect ones views.Not on a substantial way
But, I am glad that you finally answered the question about what it means to be free from the law. So, I assume from your answer that you reject the commonly held viewpoint that moral behavior has no bearing whatsoever on salvation.
Your wrong,the law increased the sin,when Paul tried to be 'moral"

Romans 7:5
For while we were living in the flesh, our sinful passions, aroused by the law, were at work in our members to bear fruit for death
If that is the case, then I think that we have a good beginning point for the discussion.

Since, Galatians is often used to support the notion
It is not a notion,it is scriptural,unless YOU CAN POST SCRIPTURE TO PROVE OTHERWISE.

Gal 2;16 yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.

because...;)

Galatians 3:11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.”
that we can be saved simply by placing our faith in Jesus,
He said it himself..John 11:25
Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. Whoever believes in me, though he die, yet shall he live,
thus, according to this idea, being freed from any obligation to behave in a certain way.
Sorry,you cant mix law and grace.

Romans 11: 6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise grace would no longer be grace.

Unless you think you can use a little law,which means you think you are being perfected by the flesh!:D

Galatians 3:3 Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected bythe flesh?
I submit to you that this notion comes from an erroneous interpretation of Galatians, which is based in part on a misunderstanding of what the Law is.
What is so hard yo understand what the law is?? It was added to increase the sin! Romans 5:20 Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more,

In fact,it is the power of sin,

1 Cor 15:56 The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law.

It was a tutor,which is no longer.

Gal 3:25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian,

While I do believe that we are saved by grace, through faith, I also believe that faith implies action -- not obedience to the Mosaic law, but a genuine desire to conduct oneself as a follower of Jesus Christ. A person reading Galatians from a first century perspective would understand that the Law that Paul is speaking of does not refer to a basic sense of right and wrong,
Incorrect.Paul said he would not know sin,right from wrong,apart from the law.
Romans 7:7 What then shall we say? That the law is sin? By no means! Yet if it had not been for the law, I would not have known sin. For I would not have known what it is to covet if the law had not said, “You shall not covet.”
but rather to the specific actions under the Mosaic Law by which one marks himself as part of the Jewish community.
Prove It. show me scripture.It us clearly telling the church not to walk under law,a false gospel.That is a bit more than you are implying.Like it was all about the "community".

Galtians 6:1I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting him who called you in the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel.
Paul is certainly not saying in Galatians that we now have no moral obligation in connection with our salvation. Although this point can be understood by a proper contextual reading of Galatians,
Then show me scripture where Paul tells Christians to walk under law.In fact,he says the law is NOT FOR CHRISTIANS.

1 Tim 1:9 understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers.
the point is made much clearer in Romans, especially in Romans chs. 2 and 6. This idea was further clarified by James and John in their epistles (See e.g., James 2 and 1 John 3). But, here we are talking about Paul. If we read Paul's epistles with an eye toward chronology, we find that in Galatians (and Ephesians, assuming that it was written around the same period), Paul is establishing the idea of salvation by grace, through faith. On way of reading the chronology here is that, as Paul began to see how the Church abused and misinterpreted this doctrine to allow for liscentiousness, he realized the need to clarify what the doctrine entailed: freedom from the Law of Moses (or any other moral code) as a means of attaining salvation is, in no way a license to behave as one chooses.
The answer was not the law though was it? Paul always knew some would misunderstand grace.Ortwist it.He often would raise a question,then answer it,but unless you can show mw a change in the justification/grace message,then you still have not made much of a case.Paul knew what the carnal mind might perceive,so he asked this,then answered.

Romans 6:1 What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that grace may abound?2 By no means! How can we who died to sin still live in it?
Rather, it is freedom to live a life of righteousness, not of licentiousness. In fact, as he alludes to in Galatians 5, one who is saved will necessarily live according to one set of principles (love, joy, peace, pateince, kindness, generosity, faithfulness, gentleness, and self, control) instead of another set of principles (fornication, impurity, . . . enmities, strife, jealousy, anger, etc.).
And notice how he said it did not come by law,the destroying of flesh.

Gal 5:16 But I say, walk by the Spirit, and you will not gratify the desires of the flesh. 17 For the desires of the flesh are against the Spirit, and the desires of the Spirit are against the flesh, for these are opposed to each other, to keep you from doing the things you want to do. 18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

Which is confirmed here,Sin dominates under law,NOT GRACE.

Romans 6:14 For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace.
It stands to reason that person whose conduct reflects the latter, rather than the former, is not saved by faith in Jesus Christ.
You will have to post scripture to show that it is not by faith alone.Show me where Paul said that please?

Romans 3:28
For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.
Although this point is made reasonably clear in Galatians, it is clarified and expanded in later Pauline (and non-Pauline) epistles.

When we ignore context and chronology, we face some apparent contradictions between various of Paul's epistles (e.g., Eph. 2:8-9 v. Romans 6).
Show the contradicitons
When we read Paul's arguments from a 1st Century perspective and in proper chronology, we find that there is no contradiction at all.
show all this please
I hope this helps somewhat. FTR, this is my own opinion, not necessarily (and probably not) that of N.T. Wright. I repeat to you that if you genuinely want an answer to your question (which I am beginning to doubt very highly), you should read some or all of the articles on his website that address the ministry of Paul, perhaps beginning with the one that I have now linked to on three separate occassions. In fact, I would go so far as to say that, if you continue to refuse to read said articles, your disingenuousness should be taken for granted, and there exists no further point in continuing this discussion.
No,your just "expounding" but not proving.
 
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