No doubt. But"function"and "purpose"have distinct meanings. The presence of one does not guarantee the presence of the other. Function can sometimes be observed, but purpose does not inhere in the object itself and must be inferred. Your point, apparently, is that purpose can be inferred from function, but this not something that "science does all the time." In fact, nobody even pretends to do it but the radical Calvinists at the Discovery Institute.
So why do you keep pushing that equivocation fallacy? Are you a Dominionist too?
I know they have to distinct meanings. Yet they are not necessarily exclusive. All it takes is observation and it's obvious that the heart has function and purpose.
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