CreedIsChrist
Well-Known Member
Yes, He was.
I'm sorry, but "Original Sin" is not a Biblical concept. There is no such thing. Each man and woman sins in him or herself; while we suffer the physical consequences of the sins of others, it is only our own sins that condemn us.
Like all humans, Jesus was born sinless. Unlike all other humans, Jesus was tempted and chose not to sin.
Bible-based Christianity doesn't need "Immaculate Conception" because that doctrine is only needed to reconcile Jesus' sinlessness with the un-Biblical doctrine of "Original Sin". In the absence of the latter doctrine, the former doctrine is just as superfluous.
Humans aren't born sinless. I think you should take your own advice on what is truly unbiblical and biblical. All men enter this world with an inherently sinful nature and all men possess an inherent moral corruptness in their own flesh. All men are therefore sinners by nature and apart from redemption through the grace of Christ, are under the curse of the Law, abide under the wrath of God, are by nature children of wrath, are dead in trespasses and sins, do nothing that pleases God, and sin continually against God as a manifestation of the wicked sinful nature in their own hearts
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity,
And in sin my mother conceived me. - Psalm 51:5
For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive - 1 Corinthians 15:12
Wherefore as by one man sin entered into this world, and by sin death; and so death passed upon all men, - Romans 5:12
To debate that Mary was a sinful woman is not our position to debate, and it is dishonorable and disrespectful of our Lord's Mother and our Lord himself. God gave Mary special graces because she was the ark that would house the Lord, she is not an ordinary woman. That is why the angel calls her "full of grace"..
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