- Feb 5, 2002
- 166,611
- 56,246
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Catholic
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Others
That is the first time, Michie, that I have heard anyone claim that John Paul infallibly declared that women cannot be priests. Yes, he declared that the matter was settled, but infallibly so?
That is the first time, Michie, that I have heard anyone claim that John Paul infallibly declared that women cannot be priests. Yes, he declared that the matter was settled, but infallibly so?
I thought that was the only way to make a teaching infallible.
I was taught anything pronounced excathedra absolutely cannot go against the Magesterium. And even then, it must go through countless clergy in the Church before doing so. I guess what is confusing me is some of Pope Francis' writings like Amoris Laetitia where some issues do seem to go against the Magesterium and this article cites JPII's Ordinatio Sacerdotalis and pronounces what JPII said in it concerning women being ordained as infallible? I do not understand. This article cites these encyclicals as being a secondary object of infallibility. I'm pretty much clueless when it comes to this topic. I'm very curious though.I mean in an informal, official sense speaking ex cathedra establishes the proclamation as infallible. But knowing the basis by which a statement is rendered infallible means it can't conflict with the Magisterium on matters of faith and morals, correct? So in that sense, couldn't the statement that there's no pathway for women into the priesthood and diaconate be consistent with Church teaching and therefore infallible?
Or am I missing a step?
I was taught anything pronounced excathedra absolutely cannot go against the Magesterium. And even then, it must go through countless clergy in the Church before doing so. I guess what is confusing me is some of Pope Francis' writings like Amoris Laetitia where some issues do seem to go against the Magesterium and this article cites JPII's Ordinatio Sacerdotalis and pronounces what JPII said in it concerning women being ordained as infallible? I do not understand. This article cites these encyclicals as being a secondary object of infallibility. I'm pretty much clueless when it comes to this topic. I'm very curious though.
Maybe I did not communicate it well. It's hard on a phone. Pope Francis has not declared anything infallible and as far as I know, neither has JPII. What confuses me is using this particular document, Ordinatio Sacerdotalis and citing it in the article as a secondary object of infallibility.Huh, I haven't known anything from Francis to be considered infallible (yet). I thought Pius IX and Pius XII were the only ones to have declared a teaching infallible?
Maybe I did not communicate it well. It's hard on a phone. Pope Francis has not declared anything infallible and as far as I know, neither has JPII. What confuses me is using this particular document, Ordinatio Sacerdotalis and citing it in the article as a secondary object of infallabiity.
No worries.Ahhh I see. I'll take the fault for this one, I don't think I did my due diligence before posting. Mea culpa.
The exact quote of Ordinatio Sacerdotalis isI was confused by that too. I don't think he spoke excathedra on the issue. I thought that was the only way to make a teaching infallible.
Basically he did not have to declare it...it already is just as much as the Trinity is.