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NIV version

drgibson

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capnator said:
I'm was saying that when you need to go into a long winded explanation to explain away what looks like a simple conclusion that it's often wrong.

The NIV seems to me to have things that are questionable about it. I most definately believe that "all scripture is inspired by God", I'm just not so sure about the NIV that's all.

When I’m studying I tend to use more then on version of the Bible. This way I get a more dimensional view of that is being said. If you take just these verses and compare them to a literal Translation such as Young’s then the NIV is actually more accurate then the other translations. Most of the other versions make the logical conclusion that the text refers to Satin or Lucifer. In this instance it is an accurate assumption but what about other assumptions they make? The NIV was an attempt to stick more closely to the original text of the Holy Scriptures. Yes at time that may make it more confusing if not studied properly but which is worse a Bible version that makes assumptions for you or one that encourages thoughtful discourses like this one?
 
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capnator

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Just to clarify my belief I most certainly believe in all scripture being inspired by God declaring salvation through faith in Jesus Christ.

Because once you move away from the belief that all scripture is inspired by God how do you decide which bits are inspired by God??? It becomes make your own religion based on your reasoning from here, why have you decided to believe what you do, and on what basis have you rejected the rest?? How can you be certain that even the parts that claim salvation through faith in Jesus Christ are more valid than other parts? And hence God would be playing a rather cruel joke on mankind with little to give concrete evidence of the path to salvation. And why would place the belief of the bible above the "psuedo scriptures" (book of enoch/maccabees etc) ,the Quran, various other "holy" books and even the satanic bible for that matter.

However until just recently I would not have cared one bit which bible version I used, but a DVD of Walter Veith rocked my view on this a bit and it does seem, whether conspiracy theory or not that a most definate attack has been made on the scriptures Starting with Wescott and Hort Highly acclaimed "protestant?" scholars who were largely responsible for the text upon which most modern translations are based. Vieth claimed these scholars denounced the belief in creation, salvation through faith and stated their aim was to change the scriptures (I am not saying this is fact). Vieth then went on to show how modern translations attack the deity of christ and delete some "keynote" verses as well as giving validity to some of the errors being preached in the world that could not be found from the textus receptus.
 
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capnator

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Sophia7 said:
so I would grant the textual scholars some discretion in trying to figure out the best way to express in English the message that God originally intended. They do make mistakes.

lol interesting you said that because read my above mentioned wescott and hort.

I would also like to point out that the changing of times & laws and speaking blashpemies against the most high has come from the work of some of the most brilliant theological "scholars".
 
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drgibson

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capnator said:
Just to clarify my belief I most certainly believe in all scripture being inspired by God declaring salvation through faith in Jesus Christ.

Because once you move away from the belief that all scripture is inspired by God how do you decide which bits are inspired by God??? It becomes make your own religion based on your reasoning from here, why have you decided to believe what you do, and on what basis have you rejected the rest?? How can you be certain that even the parts that claim salvation through faith in Jesus Christ are more valid than other parts? And hence God would be playing a rather cruel joke on mankind with little to give concrete evidence of the path to salvation. And why would place the belief of the bible above the "psuedo scriptures" (book of enoch/maccabees etc) ,the Quran, various other "holy" books and even the satanic bible for that matter.

However until just recently I would not have cared one bit which bible version I used, but a DVD of Walter Veith rocked my view on this a bit and it does seem, whether conspiracy theory or not that a most definate attack has been made on the scriptures Starting with Wescott and Hort Highly acclaimed "protestant?" scholars who were largely responsible for the text upon which most modern translations are based. Vieth claimed these scholars denounced the belief in creation, salvation through faith and stated their aim was to change the scriptures (I am not saying this is fact). Vieth then went on to show how modern translations attack the deity of christ and delete some "keynote" verses as well as giving validity to some of the errors being preached in the world that could not be found from the textus receptus.

This is always a difficult topic. We as Christians believe that the Word of God is inspired yet we see the humanity of its creation. Is it possible that there is an attempt to undermine the Word of God? Hello! Satin is alive and well and yes I’m sure that he has attempted to influence the inspired process (just look at the Living Bible) (it’s a joke folks). The KVJ version doesn’t follow the actual Greek and Hebrew language it was taken from consistently. Does this make it less inspired, less accurate, or even less powerful? No it doesn’t. Why you ask, because it is still honest, its inception was purposefully crafted by God. Its contents in total do not contradict God’s truth or character.
I have a saying that sums up what we call the inspired process. It isn’t what you do, but why you do it. Why are we inspired to mow our neighbor’s yard? Is it because we are trying to earn their favor, or so we can feel better about ourselves? Or is it because we see a need and we are compelled by the Holy Spirit to fulfill the need. The same goes for any of our actions. So we can apply this to the scholars who create these different Bible versions. But here is the rub we don’t know their hearts. However we can test the scriptures against the original text to see if it lines up to God’s purpose.
The other thing we need to ask is can someone be inspired by God to do something as grand as translating the Scriptures and then fall away God. Yup it happens. Does this mean that the work they did is invalid? No it doesn’t.
Let’s look closer to home we can read every sentence that Ellen White wrote but guess what not all of it was inspired by God nor was all of it even meant for public consumption. There are letters to individuals, thoughts, and musing that while they give us insight to her personage they are not to be necessarily to be used for counsel. Is it wrong to read these writings? Nope it ain’t (grammar intentional).

I look at thing from the perspective that God is bigger than any lie that can be told. If I (or you) are seeking to know more about God and His saving grace in an honest fashion then God will show it to us. If we go looking for discrepancies then satin will show us some. Focus on Jesus and following Him all else Will fall into place.
 
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Sophia7

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drgibson said:
This is always a difficult topic. We as Christians believe that the Word of God is inspired yet we see the humanity of its creation. Is it possible that there is an attempt to undermine the Word of God? Hello! Satin is alive and well and yes I’m sure that he has attempted to influence the inspired process (just look at the Living Bible) (it’s a joke folks). The KVJ version doesn’t follow the actual Greek and Hebrew language it was taken from consistently. Does this make it less inspired, less accurate, or even less powerful? No it doesn’t. Why you ask, because it is still honest, its inception was purposefully crafted by God. Its contents in total do not contradict God’s truth or character.
I have a saying that sums up what we call the inspired process. It isn’t what you do, but why you do it. Why are we inspired to mow our neighbor’s yard? Is it because we are trying to earn their favor, or so we can feel better about ourselves? Or is it because we see a need and we are compelled by the Holy Spirit to fulfill the need. The same goes for any of our actions. So we can apply this to the scholars who create these different Bible versions. But here is the rub we don’t know their hearts. However we can test the scriptures against the original text to see if it lines up to God’s purpose.
The other thing we need to ask is can someone be inspired by God to do something as grand as translating the Scriptures and then fall away God. Yup it happens. Does this mean that the work they did is invalid? No it doesn’t.
Let’s look closer to home we can read every sentence that Ellen White wrote but guess what not all of it was inspired by God nor was all of it even meant for public consumption. There are letters to individuals, thoughts, and musing that while they give us insight to her personage they are not to be necessarily to be used for counsel. Is it wrong to read these writings? Nope it ain’t (grammar intentional).

I look at thing from the perspective that God is bigger than any lie that can be told. If I (or you) are seeking to know more about God and His saving grace in an honest fashion then God will show it to us. If we go looking for discrepancies then satin will show us some. Focus on Jesus and following Him all else Will fall into place.

:amen:
 
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OntheDL

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capnator said:
NIV: Revelation 22:16,
"I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you [1] this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star."

Isaiah 14:12 How you have fallen from heaven, O morning star, son of the dawn! You have been cast down to the earth, you who once laid low the nations!

oops.

That's classic NIV. Also try comparing Rev 1:11 KJV vs NIV. Those are just two of hundreds of places where Jesus is degraded by text of NIV.

The Reformation translated the Bible and gave ordinary people the opportunity to read it in their own languages. The Roman Catholic Church acted to countered the Reformation by seeking to destroy the Word of God.

There are two families of Greek texts.

One is the Textus Receptus: Greek majority text. The KJV, Tyndale... are based on the Received Text.

The other family is the less than 1% Greek minority text. These manuscripts are found only in less than 1% of all existing Greek text: Alexandrian Text, Vaticanus Text, Sinaiticus Text. All modern translations are based these text: NIV, RSV, NKJV, ASB, CEB...

KJV is not perfect. But it's the best of all translations. There are some controversies because of translation problem. But none is of any consequence. It's static equivalent, meaning there is no manipulation.

You can read the article "Our Authorized Bible Vindicated" by Benjamin Wilkinson here: http://www.present-truth.org/Wilkinson/AuthorizedBibleTOC.htm

In Vaticanus text, thousands of verses are missing. In fact, books and chapters are omitted (Revelation, and chapters of Genesis, Psalms, Mathew, Hebrews...).

Sinaiticus text was found "miraclously" in the 1800s in the Catholic church at Mount Sinai. It was 'found' in a trash can.

In both Sinaiticus and Vaticanus texts, the last 14 verse of book of Mark are missing where they recount the resurrection of Jesus.

More over, Sinaiticus and Vaticanus disagree even between themselves over 3000 times just in the gospel books alone.

Do not be foolish! All modern translations are the work of the Jesuits. Look up Wescott and Hort. In the 1800s, these two Jesuits got together to change the Bible. By degrading Jesus Christ, omitting critical doctrines, introducing discrepencies...the integrity of the Bible is damaged. That's why many, even ministers don't believe in the Bible.
 
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Sophia7

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I think it's important to understand the viewpoints on both sides of this debate. I would suggest a couple of articles from the Biblical Research Institute:
http://www.adventistbiblicalresearch.org/documents/Authority%20of%20the%20Bible.htm
http://www.adventistbiblicalresearch.org/documents/kjvonly.htm

Erasmus might have compiled the best manuscripts that he could find at the time, but they are no longer considered the best manuscripts. He also knowingly included some questionable things, most notably the Johannine Comma. I totally disagree that there has been a systematic attempt by Catholics or Jesuits to corrupt the Bible by not basing newer translations on the Textus Receptus. I don't believe that Jesus has been degraded by the text of the NIV either.

Also, keep in mind this quote from the second link that I posted above:

In some quarters the debate has degenerated into mean-spirited, abusive, and insulting rhetoric which does not reflect the spirit of Christ. James R. White suggests that Dr. Peter Ruckman of the Pensacola Bible Institute is the most vocal and abusive defender of the KJV. White quotes Ruckman as calling a gentleman who does not agree with him a "deceived fool," stupid, and "a miserable little liar" whose ideas are nothing but his own "conceited opinions."[1] In his Bible Believer's Commentary on Acts 19:2, Ruckman says, "If you can't handle verse 6 as it is written, what is the point in changing verse 2, unless you are trying to play `god' for a bunch of idol-worshipping suckers (`Christians') who are too stupid to check their speedometers?"[2] Although other defenders of the KJV are not as abusive as Ruckman, his insulting rhetoric does little to commend his cause to a serious thinker.
Seventh-day Adventists who prefer the KJV must not allow themselves to be dragged down to Ruckman's level. In our discussion of Bible versions, a petty, mean spirit will not win the day for anyone and it will certainly misrepresent Christ. The strong feeling and clear statements on the part of KJV Only defenders that modern versions minimize and gloss over distinctive Adventist teachings and that the use of modern versions will lead to a falling away from the three angels' messages, must not turn us from a calm, cool-headed approach to the issues that raise this controversy in our church.

The article also addresses the ending of the book of Mark, among other textual controversies.
 
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capnator

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Whether the manuscripts are "good" or not the ones that gave rise to our modern translations definately seem to take something away from Jesus Christ when compared to textus receptus.

This may be coincidence or it may have been God's will that we have some "new light". Or it may have been a calculated assuault.
 
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Sophia7 said:
In some quarters the debate has degenerated into mean-spirited, abusive, and insulting rhetoric which does not reflect the spirit of Christ. James R. White suggests that Dr. Peter Ruckman of the Pensacola Bible Institute is the most vocal and abusive defender of the KJV. White quotes Ruckman as calling a gentleman who does not agree with him a "deceived fool," stupid, and "a miserable little liar" whose ideas are nothing but his own "conceited opinions."[1] In his Bible Believer's Commentary on Acts 19:2, Ruckman says, "If you can't handle verse 6 as it is written, what is the point in changing verse 2, unless you are trying to play `god' for a bunch of idol-worshipping suckers (`Christians') who are too stupid to check their speedometers?"[2] Although other defenders of the KJV are not as abusive as Ruckman, his insulting rhetoric does little to commend his cause to a serious thinker.
Seventh-day Adventists who prefer the KJV must not allow themselves to be dragged down to Ruckman's level. In our discussion of Bible versions, a petty, mean spirit will not win the day for anyone and it will certainly misrepresent Christ. The strong feeling and clear statements on the part of KJV Only defenders that modern versions minimize and gloss over distinctive Adventist teachings and that the use of modern versions will lead to a falling away from the three angels' messages, must not turn us from a calm, cool-headed approach to the issues that raise this controversy in our church.
What attitude some 'KJV only's' might have is irrelevant to the issue at hand.

Erasmus might have compiled the best manuscripts that he could find at the time, but they are no longer considered the best manuscripts. He also knowingly included some questionable things, most notably the Johannine Comma. I totally disagree that there has been a systematic attempt by Catholics or Jesuits to corrupt the Bible by not basing newer translations on the Textus Receptus. I don't believe that Jesus has been degraded by the text of the NIV either.

The article also addresses the ending of the book of Mark, among other textual controversies.

No longer considered the best manuscripts by whom? The ecumenical movement that came out of Vatican II???

About the passage in 1 John 5:7, just because it's found only in some minority Greek text, it does not mean it's not original. The supporters of both sides of Trinitarian/Arian debate in the early church cited the 'comma'.

Cyprian (3rd century) cited the 'comma' in 'Treatise 1'. Priscillian (4th century) cited it in 'Liber Apologeticus'.

And Jerome also cited it in 'Prolgue to the Canonical Epistles'.

The argument on the KJV of Johannine Comma is slopy research.

Lets take another look at NIV...

KJV
Exodus 20:10 But the seventh day is the Sabbath to the LORD your God.

NIV
Exodus 20:10 but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the LORD your God.

Maybe only a coincidence that the NIV which came from Catholic manuscripts change the 7th day from the definite 'the' Sabbath to an arbitrary 'a' Sabbath... Papal agenda???

KJV
Mathew 18:11 For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.

NIV
Mathew 18:11 omitted.

Maybe a coincidence Jesus' mission was omitted in NIV.

KJV
Luke 9:56 For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them...

NIV
Luke 9:56 omitted.

Another coincidence what Jesus came to do was omitted in NIV, again?

KJV
Mark 7:16 If any man have ears to hear, let him hear.

NIV
Omitted.

Coincidence Jesus's call of attention was omitted.

KJV
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.

NIV
John 3:13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man.

Coincidence Jesus' deity was omitted in NIV.

KJV
Acts 8:37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.

NIV
Acts 8:37 Omitted.

Vs 36 talks what hindered the Eunuch being baptized? Any coincidence the requirement of baptism was omitted by NIV of the Romish Church which practice infant baptism???

KJV
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

NIV
Acts 12:4 After arresting him, he put him in prison, handing him over to be guarded by four squads of four soldiers each. Herod intended to bring him out for public trial after the Passover.

Look at the verse before. Peter was apprehended in prison during the week of Unleavened Bread. What's the next upcoming holiday? It can't be Passover which was before the week of unleavened bread. It was Easter. In fact KJV is the only translation that pinpoints the ancient pagan root of Easter. All other modern translations mask it as Passover. A coincidence?

KJV
Romans 16:24 The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.

NIV omitted.

Coincidence?

KJV
1 Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

NIV
1 Tim 3:16 Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.

One of most important verses in NT concerning the divinity of Jesus is butchered badly by NIV. Coincidence?

KJV
Rev 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

NIV
Rev 1:11 which said: "Write on a scroll what you see and send it to the seven churches: to Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia and Laodicea."

The testimony of Jesus of His own divinity is omitted by NIV. Coincidence.

KJV
Isaiah 14:12 How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!

NIV
How you have fallen from heaven, O morning star, son of the dawn! You have been cast down to the earth, you who once laid low the nations!

'Ben Shachar': Hebrew phrase of son of morning. Christ's title and position are most covetted by Satan. We know pagan worships celebrate on Easter SUNday the Eastern Star(Venus)/Istar, one of the day stars, as it rises from eastern sky on vernal equinox. And our doctrine of sanctuary clearly exposes this counterfeit of Satan in the study of Holy Place. NIV cleverly elevates Lucifer and gave the title Morning Star which belongs to Jesus Christ alone to Satan. Coincidence again?


Proverbs 30:6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.

Revelation 22
18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.


Conspiracy or coincidence? Your choice.

This is not an exhaustive list. I don't have the time nor the space to list them all. But I believe it's sufficient to all those who have receptive hearts. I'm calling all the sincere professed followers of Christ (who came across this thread) to uphold the truth. This is not only an attack on our bible. It's an onlaught on Jesus Christ. Uplift the loving Jesus who died for our sins!
 
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Sophia7

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OntheDL said:
What attitude some 'KJV only's' might have is irrelevant to the issue at hand. . . .

This is not an exhaustive list. I don't have the time nor the space to list them all. But I believe it's sufficient to all those who have receptive hearts. I'm calling all the sincere professed followers of Christ (who came across this thread) to uphold the truth. This is not only an attack on our bible. It's an onlaught on Jesus Christ. Uplift the loving Jesus who died for our sins!

My point in highlighting that quote was that we need to be careful about how we treat those who disagree with us, regardless of the validity of our arguments. Questioning the sincerity of those who don't accept what you say or implying that they don't have receptive hearts doesn't help you convince anyone. I've read and considered the arguments on both sides of this issue. I disagree with the KJV-only position, but that doesn't make me an apostate Christian.
 
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Sophia7 said:
My point in highlighting that quote was that we need to be careful about how we treat those who disagree with us, regardless of the validity of our arguments. Questioning the sincerity of those who don't accept what you say or implying that they don't have receptive hearts doesn't help you convince anyone. I've read and considered the arguments on both sides of this issue. I disagree with the KJV-only position, but that doesn't make me an apostate Christian.

I didn't say anything. I only quoted scriptures and some historic facts.

I can't judge what you are or what you believe. But you do seem to be influenced by these 'strange fire' or 'new doctrines'. It's not my position to convince anyone. I'm just glad to know which side I'm on.
 
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tall73

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OntheDL said:
That's classic NIV. Also try comparing Rev 1:11 KJV vs NIV. Those are just two of hundreds of places where Jesus is degraded by text of NIV.

The Reformation translated the Bible and gave ordinary people the opportunity to read it in their own languages. The Roman Catholic Church acted to countered the Reformation by seeking to destroy the Word of God.

There are two families of Greek texts.

One is the Textus Receptus: Greek majority text. The KJV, Tyndale... are based on the Received Text.

The other family is the less than 1% Greek minority text. These manuscripts are found only in less than 1% of all existing Greek text: Alexandrian Text, Vaticanus Text, Sinaiticus Text. All modern translations are based these text: NIV, RSV, NKJV, ASB, CEB...

First of all, it is a legitimate debate as to which text type is closer to the original. And certainly there is something to be said for the text that was the dominant one for centuries.

Having said that, a few notes on the above:

a. The textus receptus and majority text are not actually the same. The TR was made up of a sampling of manuscripts at the time. The majority text actually differs from it in a number of places. Some of the manuscripts were of course from the majority text.

b. The reason that a minority of texts determine the manuscripts used by these newer versions is the criteria chosen to determine legitimacy, etc. Wa&H did have a lot to do with that. If you are going to address their arguments you have to look at their presuppositions. Generally they would be summarized as:

i. The older the text, the better. The texts are older, therefore more reliable. They reason that the older it is, the closer to the original, without a lot of changes. The Textus Receptus folks believe the opposite. Since it was later the church must have settled the issue. The Textus Receptus was the one that gained approval.

ii. More is not necessarily better. Just because the Textus Receptus has more copies does not make it better. They were just mass producing less reliable documents. A single older copy would still be more reliable as it represents an older time before the document was handled by many copyists, and altered. The Textus Receptus folks would disagree saying that the number of copies at this time indicates that it was the more favored reading.

iii. Is there an evident chain of reasoning? The newer versions claim that the earlier manuscripts are also more reliable because you can see a tree of changes. In other words, you can see how various factions might change a reading to suit their view. You can trace these progressive changes over time. Often times this was for theological reasons.

iv. The more difficult the reading, the more likely to be true. This one is related to c. This rule is based on the tendency among translators to make things read smoother, eliminate difficulties, fix "mistakes", gloss over problems, etc. So when you encounter something that seems to be controversial, problematic, or just plain wrong, it is hard to justify someone changing it to that, instead of someone smoothing out the later one. The Textus Receptus people would claim sometimes difficult is just difficult, and wrong is just wrong.


Now there is some logic to the W&H approach. There is also some question if this common sense method based on copyists of another time, and presuppositions is true.

For an interesting web book that challenges the conclusios of W&H, check here:

http://www.nttext.com/download.html

In the final analysis I would say the new versions are not evil because they use a different underlying manuscript. They put the other stuff in a foot note usually anyway. And they have raised awareness of the variety of texts and textual variants.

The downside is that we don't have a unified text to memorize, read from, etc.

KJV is not perfect. But it's the best of all translations. There are some controversies because of translation problem. But none is of any consequence. It's static equivalent, meaning there is no manipulation.

Here is where we get into opinions.

a. literal, word-for-word translation does not remove manipulation. You still have to choose which word from the various possibilities is indicated. There are so many decisions when translating Greek that it is amazing how similar most versions are. But more importantly, there are some words that don’t translate well into one equivalent. So making it a hard and fast rule can hurt the sense of the end product. Now in general I think that a literal word for word translation is often best. But a conservative dynamic equivalent ,that puts most in word for word, but adds two or even three words when necessary can be even more accurate.Here is an example:

Romans 3:25
NIV: "God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood."
KJV: "Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood."

First of all, the NIV translates the Greek word hilesterion as three words– sacrifice of atonement. The KJV translates the same into one word–propitiation. Why? Because the KJV is a literal version and strives to use the one-word-for-one-word principle. In this case, though, we see a slight limitation of that method. The Greek word is a complex one, and one word doesn't necessarily get the idea across. In fact, I think you would have a hard time finding many people who even know what the English word propitiation means! However, the term sacrifice of atonement, while still a little hard to understand, at least breaks the thought down into words we might be familiar with. Notice, also, that the King James Version puts the words to be in italics. That is because they did not appear in the original. They were supplied by the translator so that the verse made sense in English. Since the KJV is a word-for-word translation, it makes sure you know there was no word there.

In this verse, I give a slight edge to the NIV for making the concept plain and being easier to read.

Now for an example the other way:

1 Peter 1:13
NIV: "Therefore, prepare your minds for action; be self-controlled; set your hope fully on the grace to be given you when Jesus Christ is revealed."
KJV: "Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation of Jesus Christ."

Here we see quite a difference. The KJV simply translates word for word, gird up the loins of your mind, letting the reader figure it out. The NIV puts it in terms we can understand, without knowing the culture of Bible times, by saying, Prepare your minds for action. While it is nice to put things in modern language, we clearly lose a word picture here. In Bible times when you wanted to run or get ready for battle, you had to tuck the bottom part of your robe into the rope that tied your robe together. Otherwise you would trip while running. So Peter says, "Get ready for your minds to run!" While the NIV still gets the idea right, serious students will prefer the KJV literal reading, which gives us an interesting glimpse into Bible times.

Now the NIV is middle of the road or so when it comes to literal rendering. NASB is actually closer to the original word order than the KJV. The ESV, RSV etc. tend to be pretty literal too.

b. The point is all translations do have their strengths and weaknesses. To say one is the best translation is not always true. Especially when people have trouble with the archaic language. (Now it should be noted that not all modern translations have easy reading levels either. In fact a couple of the well known paraphrases have a HIGHER reading level than the KJV.)

The other pitfall of some modern versions is gender-inclusive language. To me that is completely worthless.

But you don’t have to choose just one translation. You can look at all of them. Or better yet you can learn enough to read a textual apparatus and can compare for yourself. Each variant has its own list of extant witnesses, and the case for some is much stronger than the case for others.

In Vaticanus text, thousands of verses are missing. In fact, books and chapters are omitted (Revelation, and chapters of Genesis, Psalms, Mathew, Hebrews...).

Sinaiticus text was found "miraclously" in the 1800s in the Catholic church at Mount Sinai. It was 'found' in a trash can.

In both Sinaiticus and Vaticanus texts, the last 14 verse of book of Mark are missing where they recount the resurrection of Jesus.

More over, Sinaiticus and Vaticanus disagree even between themselves over 3000 times just in the gospel books alone.

All true. However, it is also true that if these are legitimate historical documents you can’t just dismiss them. Just as the Gnostic gospels are not something we relish, but still record historical perspectives. You may decide you don’t agree with these texts, but you can’t merely wish them away.

Moreover, it is not just these two texts. There value is partly that they are the largest representatives of the text type. The older papyri agree with them at times. And these are just scraps in most cases. Most NT witnesses are far from whole testaments. For that matter the canon was not completely settled until a later time! So to expect all of the books would be futile. These scraps are very important though because they often represent very early time periods, and provide evidence of the historic faith.

Do not be foolish! All modern translations are the work of the Jesuits. Look up Wescott and Hort. In the 1800s, these two Jesuits got together to change the Bible. By degrading Jesus Christ, omitting critical doctrines, introducing discrepencies...the integrity of the Bible is damaged. That's why many, even ministers don't believe in the Bible.

Your conclusions do not follow what you presented. These texts existed before W&H. It was their system that made them viewed in the way they are, but they would doubtless have had an impact regardless because of their age and peculiarity.

Moreover, I don’t see a lot of Jesuits lining up to use the NIV. In Catholic circles they tend to prefer the New Jerusalem Version, or the NRSV etc. or the Latin derived DR (which is fairly close to the KJV in a lot of places, and quite literal).

For that matter, if you want a very literal version for study an interlinear is great. It gives far more information on word order, literal meanings, etc. Though of course it is not at all suitable for public reading. You can get them in the TR or NA/UBS versions I am sure.

Here is a great free interlinear based on the modern manuscripts. If I recall it even lets you pick your text type
www.scripture4all.org

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OntheDL said:
What attitude some 'KJV only's' might have is irrelevant to the issue at hand.



No longer considered the best manuscripts by whom? The ecumenical movement that came out of Vatican II???

About the passage in 1 John 5:7, just because it's found only in some minority Greek text, it does not mean it's not original. The supporters of both sides of Trinitarian/Arian debate in the early church cited the 'comma'.

Cyprian (3rd century) cited the 'comma' in 'Treatise 1'. Priscillian (4th century) cited it in 'Liber Apologeticus'.

And Jerome also cited it in 'Prolgue to the Canonical Epistles'.

The argument on the KJV of Johannine Comma is slopy research.



As long as you realize that here you are not going with the majority text of the Greek NT. Since that is the basis for the usual conclusions regarding which manuscripts are best, you are a bit weaker here.

Four old latin manuscripts apparently contain the comma. The Vulgate did not originally contain the comma, but later revisions of it did.

As to the church father quotes, please cite them. I have seen lists of them, but usually quoting second hand sources rather than the original documents. They would be interesting to see in any case.

Moreover, the text did not seem to figure prominently into the Trinitarian debates during the ecumenical councils, which seems nearly impossible if it were accepted at that time.

It does not appear in any but 10 or so Greek manuscripts, and in none before the 10th century where it appeared in a variant reading. Most are from the 16th century.

Having said that, some look at the grammarical structure and believe it was originally there. And the fact that Old Latin manuscripts have it shows that it was not a late invention. So it is a debate to some degree. But however you look at it this text has much weaker evidence than most readings.
 
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OntheDL said:
Lets take another look at NIV...

KJV
Exodus 20:10 But the seventh day is the Sabbath to the LORD your God.

NIV
Exodus 20:10 but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the LORD your God.

Maybe only a coincidence that the NIV which came from Catholic manuscripts change the 7th day from the definite 'the' Sabbath to an arbitrary 'a' Sabbath... Papal agenda???

My Hebrew is rustier than my Greek, so perhaps Woobadooba could weigh in here, but I see an article before seventh, and not before Sabbath. So it would just be translating the passage. Either way the Sabbath was a Sabbath. Later there were other Sabbaths as well.

They could also be going with the Septuagint reading in which the article is absent.

KJV
Mathew 18:11 For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.

NIV
Mathew 18:11 omitted.

Maybe a coincidence Jesus' mission was omitted in NIV.

It is not a coincidence at all. It is following different manuscripts. As was cited above the NIV gives preference to certain text-types. Therefore it is not surprising that it reads differently.

However, here you set up the test that says that the KJV, being the older English version, is necessarily the correct one, and the NIV, being the newer English version, is therefore an alteration. But this misses the whole point from the discussion that even you made above. The issue is the validity of the manuscripts, not which English translation was first. So it is no conspiracy to just drop verses. It is following a different text type. Now you can say that decision is wrong, or that the text that the found supported some presuppositions of theirs (but then why would they include the text in Luke’s account), but you can’t say they are randomly dropping verses for the purpose of denigrating Jesus.

Here it is believed that the verse in question was inserted from LK 19:10. There are a number of witnesses that omit it, and a number that include it. You can weigh them for yourself by looking at a variant reading apparatus.

KJV
Luke 9:56 For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them...

NIV
Luke 9:56 omitted.

Another coincidence what Jesus came to do was omitted in NIV, again?

Nope, same essential issue.

KJV
Mark 7:16 If any man have ears to hear, let him hear.

NIV
Omitted.

Coincidence Jesus's call of attention was omitted.

Again, following the Alexandrian manuscripts.

KJV
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.

NIV
John 3:13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man.

Coincidence Jesus' deity was omitted in NIV.

This one was debated in the committee preparing the NA/UBS text, but eventually again they followed the evidence of a minority witness, in this case judging that the text was a gloss reflecting later Christological views. The minority felt that the more difficult reading in this case was the one showing Jesus currently in heaven, which seemed out of place in this context. Either way, it was again based on the NT text and how they interpreted the chain of development. Interestingly, most of the readings supporting the shorter view here were Egyptian in nature. The nature of these things is that they make decisions in a committee. Sometimes they make the right call, sometimes perhaps not. The argument that this was necessarily based on a Jesuit plot is a bit extreme to me.



KJV
Acts 8:37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.

NIV
Acts 8:37 Omitted.

Vs 36 talks what hindered the Eunuch being baptized? Any coincidence the requirement of baptism was omitted by NIV of the Romish Church which practice infant baptism???

If they were going to omit anything it would be the part with him walking down into the water, as they also practice sprinkling, etc.

For that matter, what happened to this argument when you were arguing for the Trinitarian text from the TR? Many of the early Adventists didn’t even accept the Trinity and thought it a Romish monstrosity. Or for that matter, was the KJV, translated for an Anglican King, using bias when it included body AND SOUL in I Corinthians 6:20, indicating an artificial dualism (the modern texts have only body)? This whole notion of taking an accepted doctrinal position, and then saying that any text which supports it is the right one is quite backwards. It is the text that determines doctrine, not doctrine the text. Theological concerns do figure into these decisions. But it is more an historical re-construction of the theological motives of the manuscript producer that are key. For instance, Codex D is often thought to be an anti-nomian text. So that slant can be evaluated.

The text itself does not appear in Greek manuscripts before the 6th century, though Irenaeus quotes a tradition regarding the confession of the Etheopian in the 2nd century.

So again, following manuscripts of their choice.

KJV
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

NIV
Acts 12:4 After arresting him, he put him in prison, handing him over to be guarded by four squads of four soldiers each. Herod intended to bring him out for public trial after the Passover.

Look at the verse before. Peter was apprehended in prison during the week of Unleavened Bread. What's the next upcoming holiday? It can't be Passover which was before the week of unleavened bread. It was Easter. In fact KJV is the only translation that pinpoints the ancient pagan root of Easter. All other modern translations mask it as Passover. A coincidence?

Both the Majority Text and the WH text have Pascha there, which was the Passover. Easter was not in the original text. It was however in the vocabulary of the aforementioned Anglican King. As for the verse before, yes, he was taken during the feast of unleavened bread. But the reference is just to the departure of the pilgrims who had come for the feast, and the events of the Passover eventually came to be associated with the feast of unleavened bread (in fact, the original purpose of it was to recall the haste in leaving Egypt), and even the wave sheaf.

KJV
Romans 16:24 The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.

NIV omitted.

Coincidence?

Nope, once again following their manuscripts.
KJV
1 Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

NIV
1 Tim 3:16 Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.

One of most important verses in NT concerning the divinity of Jesus is butchered badly by NIV. Coincidence?

Once again a manuscript difference.

KJV
Rev 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

NIV
Rev 1:11 which said: "Write on a scroll what you see and send it to the seven churches: to Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia and Laodicea."

The testimony of Jesus of His own divinity is omitted by NIV. Coincidence.

Since it is preserved a mere 3 verses before, I doubt it is just for getting rid of Jesus’ claim to Divinity. Rather again it is due to manuscript differences.

KJV
Isaiah 14:12 How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!

NIV
How you have fallen from heaven, O morning star, son of the dawn! You have been cast down to the earth, you who once laid low the nations!

'Ben Shachar': Hebrew phrase of son of morning. Christ's title and position are most covetted by Satan. We know pagan worships celebrate on Easter SUNday the Eastern Star(Venus)/Istar, one of the day stars, as it rises from eastern sky on vernal equinox. And our doctrine of sanctuary clearly exposes this counterfeit of Satan in the study of Holy Place. NIV cleverly elevates Lucifer and gave the title Morning Star which belongs to Jesus Christ alone to Satan. Coincidence again?

No, they just rendered what it said as a substantive, rather than transliterate.

Proverbs 30:6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.

Revelation 22
18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.


Conspiracy or coincidence? Your choice.

Not a conspiracy is my choice. In fact, if the WH folks are right it is the scribes who added much to the Bible. The whole question is which were the original words.

Now you spent some time stating how bad the Alexandrian text was, then you posted all of these as though somehow they were just making stuff up. No, they were not. They come from their preference of the other text.

The most you can say is that scholars prefer these texts because they get rid of things they don’t like. But even then, the other possibility is they are legitimately trying to see which text was earliest and most reliable. I don’t always agree with them. But it is not a conspiracy. If anything you are imposing your own theology to determine which text is better.

Finally, why would the Catholic church want to disparage the Trinity or divinity of Christ? That is their key test of orthodoxy now for centuries!

This is not an exhaustive list. I don't have the time nor the space to list them all. But I believe it's sufficient to all those who have receptive hearts. I'm calling all the sincere professed followers of Christ (who came across this thread) to uphold the truth. This is not only an attack on our bible. It's an onlaught on Jesus Christ. Uplift the loving Jesus who died for our sins!

I personally disagree. But people can decide. To me the fact that the thousands of manuscripts still give a very unified picture of the NT, and give credibility to it far beyond the other works of its time (far more manuscripts), is a great thing. If it challenges us at times, that is our issue to deal with.
 
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OntheDL said:
I didn't say anything. I only quoted scriptures and some historic facts.

I can't judge what you are or what you believe. But you do seem to be influenced by these 'strange fire' or 'new doctrines'. It's not my position to convince anyone. I'm just glad to know which side I'm on.

I would say equating someone who disagrees with you in doctrine with those destroyed in the temple for offering strange incense is judging. But then Paul says we are to judge those in the church. And we are also to judge teaching. Just make sure you make a right judgment :)
 
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tall73 said:
I would say equating someone who disagrees with you in doctrine with those destroyed in the temple for offering strange incense is judging. But then Paul says we are to judge those in the church. And we are also to judge teaching. Just make sure you make a right judgment :)

If our mission is to call God's people out of Babylon, then why do we defend the texts that came out of the Babylonian system. That to me is the bottom line.
 
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OntheDL said:
If our mission is to call God's people out of Babylon, then why do we defend the texts that came out of the Babylonian system. That to me is the bottom line.

Then show which texts did not come out of the babylon system?

The texts may have been discovered later, but they are fairly early in their dating, as are the papyri which often times agree. The texts may well be the ones that are less tainted. If anything the majority text is a later text, definitely in the period when the babylon system was underway.

Your argument is simply not consistent. If you feel the text is the more legitimate one, that is fine. But You have to back it with facts that make sense.
 
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tall73 said:
My Hebrew is rustier than my Greek, so perhaps Woobadooba could weigh in here, but I see an article before seventh, and not before Sabbath. So it would just be translating the passage. Either way the Sabbath was a Sabbath. Later there were other Sabbaths as well.
The 7th sabbath is not merely 'a' sabbath. It is the sabbath that vadicates God's creatorship and Lordship. The other sabbaths were types and shadows. In the original hebrew, there was no definite article. The translators of KJV were not sabbath keepers. Why would they translate this way, I can only assume because they were sincere, they prayed before every session much like the prineer adventists. God blessed it with divine guidance.

It is not a coincidence at all. It is following different manuscripts. As was cited above the NIV gives preference to certain text-types. Therefore it is not surprising that it reads differently.

However, here you set up the test that says that the KJV, being the older English version, is necessarily the correct one, and the NIV, being the newer English version, is therefore an alteration. But this misses the whole point from the discussion that even you made above. The issue is the validity of the manuscripts, not which English translation was first. So it is no conspiracy to just drop verses. It is following a different text type. Now you can say that decision is wrong, or that the text that the found supported some presuppositions of theirs (but then why would they include the text in Luke’s account), but you can’t say they are randomly dropping verses for the purpose of denigrating Jesus.
The modern english bibles were the products of Revisions of the 1881.

Over 5000 changes were made to the TR. The changes weren't mere preference of the group of text.

Dr. G. V. Smith, a member of the English New Testament Revision Committee, wrote:
"Since the publication of the revised New Testament, it has been frequently said that the changes of translation which the work contains are of little importance from a doctrinal point of view... To the writer, any such statement appears to be in the most substantial sense contrary to the facts of the case." --- Dr. G. Vance Smith, Texts and Margins of the Revised N.T., p. 45

This one was debated in the committee preparing the NA/UBS text, but eventually again they followed the evidence of a minority witness, in this case judging that the text was a gloss reflecting later Christological views. The minority felt that the more difficult reading in this case was the one showing Jesus currently in heaven, which seemed out of place in this context. Either way, it was again based on the NT text and how they interpreted the chain of development. Interestingly, most of the readings supporting the shorter view here were Egyptian in nature. The nature of these things is that they make decisions in a committee. Sometimes they make the right call, sometimes perhaps not. The argument that this was necessarily based on a Jesuit plot is a bit extreme to me.

Perhaps, you don't realize the battle of the bibles has been raging ever since the death of John at around 100AD. The church has always suffered the influence of the paganism even during the time of Paul. But after the death of John, apostasy surfaced somewhat publicly. Justin Martyr, Tatian, Clement of Alexandria, Origen...were the earliest ones prominently contributed in the corruption of the NT manuscripts.

Constantine ordered 50 copies of Origen/Eusebius type MSS. Vaticanus and Sinaiticus texts came from these.

Now you said they were just different versions. But that's not the case, just use the example of the bapstismal requirement, by removing the verse, the picture is mirred that we are willing partakers of baptism.

While the church of the west fell into apostasy, the church of the east: church of Judea and church of Antioch stood firm. Why? Because they had the unadulterated bible text. The Syriac Pershitta, the Aramaic NT was translated from the original Greek text in 150AD. And Pershitta agrees with Textus Receptus over and over.

It was the church of Antioch who evangelized the northern Italy, southern France and the British Isles. When the Gallic/French people were slaughtered by the barbarians in the Second century, guess whom they cried out their sufferings to? Not Rome, but the church of Antioch.

Because of the evangelism, the true Greek NT text was widely circulated.

The bible tells us the dragon was wrath with the woman and remnant of her seed who keep the commandments of God and have the testimony of Jesus. The law and the prophets are the two witnesses of the pure Word of God. The catholic priests testified the difficulty of ‘converting’ the Celtic church because they had the Textus Receptus and rejected the papal teachings.

The little horn power uprooted three nations who would not bow down to the beast power. In the last days, who will not bow down to the beast? Those who uphold the pure Word of God.

The woman fled into the wilderness in the face of the persecution. The remote, inaccessible mountains shielded the woman for over a thousand years. At the dawn of Reformation, the Waldenses joined the reformers and shared with them the unadulterated text. John Calvin received the TR from a Waldensian scholar.

We can see the battle of the bible has been carrying for almost 2000 years. Many, thousands, millions gave their lives for the preservation of the true bible. Some asks if it is possible to have one true version. Yea, by divine providence. There must be. God says so. Do we not believe that?

The KJV version was born as a product of the Reformation. Not surprisingly the modern English versions were born as a product of the Romanizing the protestant world.

The Vulgate of Jerome, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus… the reformers once rejected, now vying for supremacy in the forms of modern translations. Among other reasons, are you shocked that the Reformation has died???
The Hebrews had abstract thinking, meaning not logical, but based on ideas, imagery… because the Hebrew language was flexible, broad and generic. The Hebrew mindset was not confined by specifics of the language but rather by ideas and general understanding. The same was the classical Greek. Because the classical Greek was also a descendent of the Phoenician like the Paleo-Hebrew. The English of 1611 was perfect in the sense that it too was a broad, flexible and generic language. Like the example you gave, ‘gird up the loins of your mind’, only minds that are connected (at least somewhat) to the Hebrew mindset can understand that. That’s the beautiful part. Who would want to lose that to the modern translations?

Here the Word of God is truly a dividing sword. We are all either for Him or against Him. It is not just a preference. It is a matter of life and death. At least for those who stood for it.
 
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Here are some of the quotes on Comma:

"Thus the connection of the Father in the Son, and of the Son in the Paraclete, produces three coherent Persons, who are yet distinct One from Another. These Three are one essence, not one Person, as it is said, 'I and my Father are One,' in respect of unity of substance not singularity of number." ---Tertullian, Adv. Prax., cap. xxv. 200AD.

'He who breaks the peace and the concord of Christ, does so in opposition to Christ; he who gathereth elsewhere than in the Church, scatters the Church of Christ. The Lord says, 'I and the Father are one;' and again it is written of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, 'And these three are one.' ---Cyprian, De Unit. Eccl., cap. vi. 250AD

As John says "and there are three which give testimony on earth, the water, the flesh the blood, and these three are in one, and there are three which give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Spirit, and these three are one in Christ Jesus."---Priscillian, Liber Apologeticus. 380AD.

'But if we will inquire into the things signified I by these, there not unreasonably comes into our thoughts the Trinity itself, which is the One, Only, True, Supreme God, Father and Son and Holy Ghost, of whom it could most truly be said, "There are Three Witnesses, and the Three are One:" ...
These are the "Three Witnesses, and the Three are One, because of one substance."---Augustine, Contra Maximinium, Lib. II, cap. xxii.3. 390AD.

"there are three which bear testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one." ---Victor Vitensis, Historia persecutionis Africanae Provinciae 3.11 in PL58, 227C per RB, 485AD.

...

IMHO, we are getting into too much technicality. The enemies love to bug us down with confusion. However, we can always check the fruits and see what they reap. I think it's fairly established that there are only two bibles in this battle. The bible the faithful early church of the east, the wilderness church and the reformation church used. And bible the church of Rome used. Compare the group of people, I think it's not hard to see which bible we should be using.
 
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tall73 said:
Then show which texts did not come out of the babylon system?

The texts may have been discovered later, but they are fairly early in their dating, as are the papyri which often times agree. The texts may well be the ones that are less tainted. If anything the majority text is a later text, definitely in the period when the babylon system was underway.

Your argument is simply not consistent. If you feel the text is the more legitimate one, that is fine. But You have to back it with facts that make sense.

Have you seen these two works?
http://www.present-truth.org/KJV-HB/KJV-HB-TOC.htm
http://www.present-truth.org/Wilkinson/AuthorizedBibleTOC.htm

I don't have the space or the time to cover everything. Nor do I think I have all the facts. Try these two above links if you haven't.
 
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