"If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves." So how is all sin "put away," once for all? We can see it in ourselves, and read about it in the papers. The pat answer of "not by the Elect" doesn't fly, according to 1 John 1:8.
You're saying they're "purged" even while we're committing sin?
Fact is, they're imputed -- assessed or evaluated or reckoned -- on the basis of our faith.
That faith comes to people by God's choosing, not by our own wills.
And they'd better be. Of course people can be caught and die in the midst of sin.
That confessing our sins either isn't necessary, or it accomplishes nothing?
Not on its own, no. It's actually a result, not a cause of forgiveness. And to be honest, "confession" is not a vocal & verbal recounting of sins. That would be the "penance oriented" medieval shallowness of the depth of the Greek term. The Greek term essentially means that we are coming to an understanding of our sins that agrees with God's.
If you think we need to confess to each & every sin we've ever committed to be saved -- then the ship's sunk already. You're in sins yourself right this red-hot minute. So am I. We don't know God's heart on each of our actions. Even of those we do, we often disagree, by rationalizing, by denial, or just by plain hard stubbornness.
Net result: if this is what John means at 1 Jn 1:8, nobody's saved.
No, what it means is that we are coming into agreement with God about our sins -- we are in the process of learning the horror of our sins before God and in the process of turning away from them. If we say we have
no sin, we're lying to ourselves and God. If we are agreeing with God about our sins, God is being faithful to forgive and cleanse us from
all sin. Note where the universality is, and thus where it isn't.
Seems to me the OT Priest hearing the confession and placing his hand on the head of the animal to be sacrificed was looking ahead to 1 John 1:9, written once we can now rely on the power of Jesus' finished work on the cross. And the all-important aspect of cleansing us from all unrighteousness is in the present tense, ongoing. This seems to me to be in conflict with the bulk of the snip above.
Pointedly, the Atonement initiates a process that cleanses from all sin. The sacrifice is once for all. But sanctification itself is a process. Just as the Jewish race received sacrifice through Moses, but was also involved in sanctification through Moses, through learning and law and love.
How is our own will not involved in confession of sin?
Nobody said the human will isn't
involved -- the issue is whether the human will is the
initiative or cause. That's the exclusive purview of God's will (Rom 9:16).
And a new question, is sin itself (indwelling sin) a moral agent of it's own? Or is all of that really just our "old man?"
Is the old man a moral agent of its own? What's the origin of indwelling sin? Did it come from outside and work into some pure heart of the "old man"?
Calvinism itself doesn't have one particular response here. In fact there are "outside-in" attacks on the will. But there are also "inside-in" responses of your human will -- corrupted moral agency from within.
As Calvinism is "both and not one, alone", specific Scriptures on what "indwelling sin" means, may vary from Calvinist to Calvinist. Both forms of corruption are embraced in Calvinism, but what each author may mean at a particular point, that varies to some extent.
Ok that reads nice but it also implies that God chose many (in comparison to few) who will never want Salvation.
There're numerous assumptions here that aren't shared in Calvinism.
-1) Scripture actually refers to a whole lot of people on both sides of salvation. A few? How about "a whole lot; yeah a remnant but a whole lot more than expected."
-2) Choice is a quisling of a term here. Scripture never uses this term: y'know what term it uses?
Destined. 1 Pt 2:8 The basis for this destination is the person's own corrupted will. And what brought it to corruption? Human history (Rom 1:18ff, Rom 5:12ff). Who reinforced and wallowed in their corruption? Human individual will (again, Rom 1:18ff). Why is condemnation the destination of human sinfulness, though? Well, because God ordained the condemnation of sinful people for their own sinfulness (Rom 3:5-9, :10-19). He ordained the Last Judgment against all sin and sinfulness in Creation.
Just so He can damn them? Still seems to fly in the face of everything I know of God.
Y'mean, like, Romans 9:19-23?
Look, no one is saying humans are created
solely so God condemns them. There are hundreds of other things that human creation means -- God's patience, God's power in creation, God's willingness to show good toward evil to demonstrate His love, even when that love doesn't extend to salvation.
So "just so" -- eliminate that thought. It's not "just so". Reality isn't that simplistic. Neither is Calvinism.
I would point out, though, that every theology that recognizes God as omniscient has to address this point. So ... be careful. The theology you rhetorically stomp on may not be limited to Calvinism.
Red herring. We have all things pertaining to life and Godliness. We also know all things, yet here we are asking questions of each other.
As John says, we need reminders. The question itself is very valid, and very poignant, considering that it's not a red herring. Let's take it to one thing in particular.
Was everyone in the world given salvation or not? Is that some part of "all things"? Is every human being given "all things"? Obviously that extreme compromises the assertion Peter is making. 2 Peter 1 is addressed to Christians, not everyone. Scripture in numerous places pronounces condemnation on the wicked. Nothing says everyone's saved.
And the fact is, not every human being has all things pertaining to life and godliness.
So narrowing a bit, we in our current status as Christians have all things pertaining to life and godliness. Paul doesn't say we
know everything that is. In fact, if that's God, then it's clearly impossible to know God completely. So ... not quite the direction Paul was going in. We have everything. We're not aware of everything.
Also we have the illustration in Daniel, of God having sent the answer, but it was detained and therefore not yet received. We also have "my people suffer for the lack of knowledge." Seems to be plenty of precedent for God to provide for (fill in the blank), yet we have not yet received, (fill in this blank the same way) and our action / will / etc will affect the outcome. So how does a Calvinist reconcile this?
God's foreordination of events as well as our regeneration and sanctification:
this divine grace of regeneration does not act in people as if they were blocks and stones; nor does it abolish the will and its properties or coerce a reluctant will by force, but spiritually revives, heals, reforms, and--in a manner at once pleasing and powerful--bends it back. As a result, a ready and sincere obedience of the Spirit now begins to prevail where before the rebellion and resistance of the flesh were completely dominant. It is in this that the true and spiritual restoration and freedom of our will consists. Thus, if the marvelous Maker of every good thing were not dealing with us, man would have no hope of getting up from his fall by his free choice, by which he plunged himself into ruin when still standing upright. Canons of Dordt -- 3.16
The argument of irresistible Grace. I've resisted God's Grace plenty. I fail even at that! I don't think anybody would argue that just caring about Holiness and being victorious over sin is proof of God's election. And that wanting to be diligent about making both calling and election sure is too. Yet in your analogy, this "snatching" is entirely dependent also on our co-operation, is it not?
Note the word you use: "co-operation". You're stating that it takes us operating along with God. That's an ambiguous term, and an ambiguous requirement. Obviously you resisted. Hm. so you're not saved, because it would've taken you cooperating along with God?
I'm sure your position has an answer to this, normally involving, "I changed my mind."
What if it weren't you who changed your mind? What if you had God to thank for that, instead? (2 Thess 2:13, John 6:29, Pp 1:29, Rom 9:13-23, Rom 8:30,38-39).
That's the point. Our willful involvement with God is not our operation, but God's operation on our wills.
So, to use the term "cooperation" would be too strong a word. Yes, we're involved. Yes, we're willfully responding to God. But we're responding to God out of His work on our hearts (Pp 1:6).
This implies God steadfastly hates many from birth. Jacob / Esau, yes I know he has the right to, but ...
Well, actually, Romans 9 says not "I have a right to" but "I hated".
This might baffle me as much as pre-destination. How is free will something to be believed in? I must be missing what Calvinists mean by the term.
Free will is a viewpoint, is it not? You either believe in a viewpoint or you don't, do you not?