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Did you just completely ignore my explanation?
The EOB by native Greek speaking scholars translates it "handling." That should be enough.
ὀρθοτομέω (ὀρθός, τέμνω) found elsewh. independently of the NT only Pr 3:6; 11:5, where it is used w. ὁδούς and plainly means ‘cut a path in a straight direction’ or ‘cut a road across country (that is forested or otherwise difficult to pass through) in a straight direction’, so that the traveler may go directly to his destination (cp. Thu. 2, 100, 2 ὁδοὺς εὐθείας ἔτεμε; Hdt. 4, 136 τετμημένη ὁδός; Pla., Leg. 7, 810e; Plut., Galba 24, 7; Jos., C. Ap. 1, 309) Then ὀρθοτομεῖν τὸν λόγον τῆς ἀληθείας would prob. mean guide the word of truth along a straight path (like a road that goes straight to its goal), without being turned aside by wordy debates or impious talk 2 Ti 2:15. For such other mngs. as teach the word aright, expound (it) soundly, shape rightly, and preach fearlessly, s. M-M.—DELG s.v. τέμνω. TW. Spicq.
William Arndt et al., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000), 722.
I explained how I came to that conclusion from what the entry says, which if you're simply going to ignore such explanations and ask questions that are already answered there's no point in further discussion.I did, I was just trying to confirm whether your statement "Handling makes it clearer that what's in mind is how the Bible is used as a tool rather than giving the idea that the Bible is supposed to be chopped into pieces."
is that what you interpret that they are implying, instead of them actually saying that?
I explained how I came to that conclusion from what the entry says, which if you're simply going to ignore such explanations and ask questions that are already answered there's no point in further discussion.
Never said they were Jews but that they descended from them & intermarried (with non jews, implied)Where are you finding anywhere, "the Samaritans were Jews"? And if they were why did Jesus tell them not to go to them?
The Bible quote in my post is the Bible linked to here on CF. But if you follow the link to the EOB I linked to post #325 you will see "handling." And once again I remind you the correct word for "divide" was used 4 times in the NT which have never been questioned. Also if orthotomeo supposedly means "dividing" what exactly is being divided from what?Where in this passage that you used from them, actually has the term handling?
The Bible quote in my post is the Bible linked to here on CF. But if you follow the link to the EOB I linked to post #325 you will see "handling." And once again I remind you the correct word for "divide" was used 4 times in the NT which have never been questioned. Also if orthotomeo supposedly means "dividing" what exactly is being divided from what?
OK, but the point you are trying to make is: since Jesus told the 12 (not including Paul) to go to the Jews only that means they were never to go to the Gentiles and Paul took a different Gospel to the Gentiles. The problem with that is the fact Jesus specifically said when telling them to go to the Jews only said do not go to the Samaritans, yet later Christ does go to the Samaritans and right after Steven's stoning Christs and Peter and John are going to the Samaritans big time so were they preaching a different Gospel to the Samaritans?Never said they were Jews but that they descended from them & intermarried (with non jews, implied)
Who Were the Samaritans?
During the ministry of Jesus there was contact with a group of people known as the Samaritans. The Samaritans were half-Jew, half-Gentile. The race came aboutwww.blueletterbible.org
Christ also taught Gentiles and Peter went to Gentiles, so it would seem Christ's command to the 12 prior to Christianity was limited to that time and not limited to a different Gospel.
He talked to a Samaritan woman about worship and revealed to her that he was the Messiah.Jesus did not "teach" gentiles,
He talked to a Samaritan woman about worship and revealed to her that he was the Messiah.
He taught crowds of people, Matthew 13:1; how do you know those crowds did not include Gentiles?
They were still enemies of Israel - hated and probably unclean.Samaritans are half Jews.
Matthew 15:24 and Matthew 10:5 made it clear the crowd could not have included gentiles.
He was not going to ignore a Samaritan (or anyone) that was right there, especially one that showed faith after being challenged, however as general rule, His mission was to the Jews, a minor diversion didn't change that.They were still enemies of Israel - hated and probably unclean.
In Matthew 10:5 Jesus tells them not to go to the Samaritans, yet on other occasions, he healed Samaritans. And when James and John wanted to destroy the Samaritans by fire, he would not let them.
Again, he taught a Samaritan woman and revealed to her that he was the Messiah.
As a general rule, maybe - after all, he was born, and lived, in Israel.He was not going to ignore a Samaritan (or anyone) that was right there, especially one that showed faith after being challenged, however as general rule, His mission was to the Jews, a minor diversion didn't change that.
But his ministry included Samaritans and Gentiles; even if only 2 or 3, they were included.
Who said anything about a joke?Again, did Jesus meant what he said in Matthew 15:24, or was he making a joke there?
The thing is that any teaching Jesus did to Samaritans or anyone else non-jewish, would have been to tell them, as He did to the Samaritan woman that salvation if of the Jews John 4:22. That is to be included in the saved people, at the time, one needed to become a proselyte, ie convert to Judaism. Jesus had not died yet, the Jews had not yet rejected Jesus and they might not have at that point, Jesus would have acted in good faith & not until Jesus had died and the Jews rejected Him finally at the witnessing of Stephen, did God then finally and dramatically extend salvation directly to the gentiles via Paul.Who said anything about a joke?
Jesus healed Samaritans and other gentiles, and revealed to a Samaritan woman that he was the Messiah - fact.
Make of it what you will, that's what happened.
I have said that, yes, his ministry probably was primarily to the Israelites - but he did not refuse, or deny, Gentiles.
And can you remind me what the point of this argument was; are you saying that little of Jesus' teaching was to Gentiles, so it is not for us today? I can't think of any other reason for you being so adamant on this point.
Who said anything about a joke?
Jesus healed Samaritans and other gentiles, and revealed to a Samaritan woman that he was the Messiah - fact.
Make of it what you will, that's what happened.
I have said that, yes, his ministry probably was primarily to the Israelites - but he did not refuse, or deny, Gentiles.
And can you remind me what the point of this argument was; are you saying that little of Jesus' teaching was to Gentiles, so it is not for us today? I can't think of any other reason for you being so adamant on this point.
And if Jesus' ministry which He passed on to them through His disciples did not include Gentiles He could not have said,If his ministry did include gentiles, he could not have said Matthew 15:24.
Your not saying anything about Jesus, Peter and John going to the Samaritans, whom Jesus equally told His disciples not to go to.Jesus did not "teach" gentiles, he granted 2 gentiles their healing requests because they blessed Israel, and under the Covenant of Law, gentiles who blessed Israel will be blessed by God (Genesis 12:1-3, Genesis 27:29, Numbers 24:9.)
Peter made a one off trip to Cornelius "under protest".
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