- Aug 12, 2008
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I've just been reading a Chick extract about the translation of the King James Bible. In this track it said that many translations of the Bible are corrupted because they relied on 'corrupted' Latin Vulgates and also on 'Satanic' Alexandrian Greek texts.
It also said that the Westcott and Hort Greek text is Satanic.
Surely this cannot be the case?
It also said that the Westcott and Hort Greek text is Satanic.
Surely this cannot be the case?