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Moses wrote Genesis working from the oldest writings in the world

Calminian

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I think I've addressed all of the different issue you brought up except this one.

Adam was unconscious when Eve was created. God planted the garden away from Adam and only later placed Adam (and only Adam) in it. Genesis 3:22 is a speech by God with no human witnesses. There is no indication that anyone else was present at Abel's murder or the events leading up to it, and in fact it seems to indicate that Cain purposely waited until the two of them were alone in a field. There is no indication that Adam was present when God spoke to Cain before and after his murder, nor that Cain told his father his whole story before he left for the land of Nod. Indeed, he appeared to be quite afraid of meeting anyone, and this was the reason he left.

I don't find this objection compelling at all. While Adam was contemporary to these events. The fact that he was asleep during the creation of Eve, does not mean he didn't have access to account of what happened. God himself spoke to Adam even walked with Adam at that time. This was pre-fall, so it's very plausible that Adam was allowed to ask questions and dialog with God. This seems strange to us being that we live in a postlapsarian era. Adam truly was the friend of God and had a very unique relationship with him, that no one else has since. When the context is considered, the idea that Adam and God never conversed seems very implausible.

And even after the fall, God did communicate with Adam, namely when he scolded Adam. But the text also seems to indication that open lines of communication still existed even after the fall. God went to Cain and gave him encouraging words after his offering was rejected. God has spoken to certain men ever since. Is it not plausible that Adam attempted to speak with God after the Fall? Seems perfectly reasonable he got some information from God at that time. In fact it seems unreasonable he wouldn't.

And is it really reasonable to think Adam would not have known about Abel's murders? Now I do believe the earth was highly populated at that time, but this was Adam's son. Cain's dee was well known so much so, he needed to wear a mark to keep the masses from killing him. I would surmise those two were quite famous at that time of earth's history.

Further, in addition to these chapters including things Adam could not have been an eyewitness to (and reporting those things in the same style as the things Adam would have been able to witness), Adam is referred to in the third person, no differently than any other character in these chapters (not as "I" or "me" or "the human God loved", etc.). Compare Genesis 2:4-5:1 with Nehemiah 1. I suggest that only one of these passages reads like an eyewitness report.

This is also not an issue. Some auto-biographers do this today. Other Bible writers did this.

Matt. 9:9 As Jesus went on from there, he saw a man named Matthew sitting at the tax collector’s booth. “Follow me,” he told him, and Matthew got up and followed him.​

Would you also suggest Matthew didn't write Matthew?

These are fairly week objections in my humble opinion.
 
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Calminian

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Calminian, you seem to be arguing that it makes more sense to view the toledot statement as describing the author of the preceding material rather than the following material. But neither I nor anyone else is arguing that toledot statements give the author of the following material! The traditional understanding of the toledot statements is that they introduce sections, not authors.

Adam isn't the author of the Genesis 5 genealogy, but that genealogy is his genealogy. Similarly, if I compose my great-grandfather's family tree, it is his family tree even if I write it. So, the toledot statements are not typically understood as giving us information about the author.

I don't think I meant to say that the other side says that, being the other side generally doesn't believe Adam was a real person. But the text implies an author, an accounter. "This is the account of Adam." The colophon actually makes an eyewitness possible and likely. But context is the key. Is it purely coincidence that these phrases have contemporary material preceding each one? You would there there would be at least one anomaly.

This is what I would most like you to expand on. How do the toledot phrases in the Bible "perfectly fit the concept of colophon phrase"?

For instance, Genesis 10 gives us the genealogies of the sons of Noah:

"These are the generations of the sons of Noah, Shem, Ham, and Japheth. Sons were born to them after the flood. The sons of Japheth: ....
The sons of Ham: ....
The sons of Shem: ....
These are the clans of the sons of Noah, according to their genealogies, in their nations, and from these the nations spread abroad on the earth after the flood"
(Genesis 10:1-2a, 6a, 22a, 32, ESV).​

So, how do you determine that the first phrase I bolded from Genesis 10:1 is a colophon (a signature at the end of an account) while the second phrase I bolded from Genesis 10:32 isn't? How specifically is Genesis 10:1 similar to other ancient tablet colophons and Genesis 10:32 dissimilar?

If you can answer those two questions, I will have a better understanding of why you find this view compelling.

I think Gen. 10:1 might be the entire phrase. This is the account of Noah's sons who had descendants after the flood. It's seem a reasonable signature to make. The last part could have been an inspired notation of Moses, but I would say it's likely the entire phrase noting the fact that it was these 3 that all descendants of the earth came from. It may be a way of indicating that at the time they finished this account, they all had several sons.

But there's no question this passage follows the colophon patter before and after it.

Now you ask, how do I know where these phrases are, and I can only respond, they simply jump off the pages. It's like looking at the ink spot and not seeing any thing until someone shows you the hidden picture and you only see that from then on. They are very obvious in context. Even the embedded histories of Ishmael and Esau are very obvious to me. You see, I'm not basing my view on the mere fact that some contemporary ancient tablets had colophon phrases. I'm basing the view on context, and the most straightforward reading of the passage. Colophon discoveries opened the door, but context seals the deal.
 
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Keachian

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Treating the Toledot statements as colophons ONLY works for the first 4 or so, after that you have strange ones such as Shem signing off on the Tower of Babel account, Esau signing off on some of his ancestore and the wild adventures of Jacob, Jacob signing off on Esau's descendents, if you want to dismiss these as headings instead then you are inconsistently applying your hermeneutic.
 
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Marshall Janzen

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Calminian, I've read all of this thread, as well as the article you posted, and I still don't have any idea of what you see as the positive evidence for your view. I thought my example with Genesis 10 might help, but while you quoted the two questions I asked you, you didn't answer them. I still don't know how you determine Genesis 10:1 contains a colophon and Genesis 10:32 doesn't, or how the Genesis colophons are similar to those ancient finds that you've mentioned so frequently, yet never detailed.

This can't simply be about the word toledot itself, since neither that word nor its translation is found in other ancient tablet colophons. That word also isn't found in Exodus 1:6, which you claim to be the last colophon for the Joseph portion of Genesis. It can't be whether there is a name or not, since the example you see as most clear, Genesis 2:4, doesn't include a name.

A large part of what you seem to find convincing is the way the NIV translates this word as "account", which to you implies an "accounter". Yet even in English, "account of Adam" can mean an account about Adam just as easily as it can mean an account by Adam. What evidence leads you to believe it means the second, or that the more literal translations as "generations" or "descendents" are incorrect?

I have no doubt Moses knew what the phrases were, but as you say, it just wasn't a common practice for Moses and later biblical writers.
If you take Numbers as written by Moses, we have evidence in Numbers 3:1 that Moses used a toledot statement to introduce a section of family information. This verse introduces rather than concludes a section, and it does not mark off that section as having a different author, but rather describes its subject. This is exactly the way the toledot statements in Genesis are also traditionally read. This does not support that Moses understood them as author's signatures appended to the end of accounts. The one time Moses used a toledot statement outside of Genesis, he used it in a way that confirms the traditional interpretation, not the tablet view.

If the Creation Toledoth is a title, it really doesn't make any sense.
I don't see why not. It is followed by a quick mention of God making the earth and the heavens (2:4b) followed by a focus on Eden. Actions in Eden are central to understanding the "generations of the heavens and the earth."

The only thing confusing people and making them think there were two accounts is the mere fact that they thought Gen. 2:4 is actually a title.
No, it is also based on the two accounts describing some of the same things (such as the creation of people, plants and land animals), yet doing so in different ways. I know you disagree with this view, but regardless, it is not merely based on Genesis 2:4a, and a different reading of that verse does not undermine the view. (In fact, among TEs you'd find different opinions on whether Genesis 2:4a is the end of the first account, the beginning of the second account, or a bridging statement added by a later editor. Yet, those differences do not determine whether one reads the two chapters as containing two accounts of creation.)

Once it was show that toledoths could actually be signatures, suddenly everything falls into place. [...] Now that the colophon door has been opened, frankly it's undeniable. It works so beautifully with the context, there no reason to return to titles. I would cite the very first colophon phrase in the Bible as the best example.
There is no reason to view the toledot statement of Genesis 2:4 as a signature. It does not even include a name!

Yes, it is generic, just as would seem reasonable considering no human eyewitness would have been able to make this account. I suppose if this account called out Adam, the objection would then be made that he would not have been alive for these events.

So instead of saying this is the account of so and so, it merely says this is the account, leaving the accounter a question mark. But it's still a toledoth statement, and is the first in an obvious pattern of colophon phrases.
The toledot statement in Genesis 2:4 says, "these are the generations of the heavens and the earth." That is not generic, it just shows that toledot statements do not necessarily include a name.

The tablet theory claims that even this section is an eyewitness report recorded on a tablet, perhaps by an angel or God. If this were the case, there would be no need to hide this fact. When God gave the Decalogue to Moses, Moses doesn't record that he received the tablets from "the heavens and the earth." He is direct in saying they were from God. Why the hesitation to be direct here?

Noah was a righteous man. Now does that sound like something a righteous man would say? Well the tablet theory, once again, makes sense of the context. This is actually the end of one writing and the start of another. The statement "Noah was a righteous man" is attributed to Noah's sons account (genesis 10). It's amazing how much the colophon explanation clears up confusion. It's a blessing to me, is the best way I can put it.
Do you, for the same reason, think someone other than Moses wrote Numbers 12:3?
 
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Calminian

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I've been wanting to get to this post. :)

I think it is a genuine insight of Wiseman that the toledoth show, from the text of Genesis itself, that Genesis is composed of earlier documents edited together. What I find fascinating is that the documents he identifies through the toledoth broadly match the documents identified by documentary hypothesis scholars through changes in vocabulary and style.

Well, it appears we have some agreements here. Even I noticed differences in the text and sensed we were dealing with multiple books within a book. I have no doubt this is what some of the early JEDP theorists picked up on. The problem is the direction they went with it. I have no issue with the existence of multiple styles within Genesis, but the theories that followed just didn't follow were haven't been born out by any evidence.

The Tablet theory actually offers historical textual support to this issue, and preserves the authorship of Moses.

It is interesting you are trying to defend Moses writing Genesis by saying he didn't actually write the books that make up Genesis, he just edited them together.

Well there was also the issue of translating, and the issue of sifting out which writings didn't belong, and compiling the various accounts into one book.

The church has always held, though, that God is the true author of Genesis, and Moses was merely an instrument. Even those that believe in the dictation theory are in essence admitting that Moses really didn't have anything to do with the book, here merely wrote down the words God dictated. I think the Tablet theory actually gives Moses a more prominent role. Compiling ancient works like this is no easy task. A child could merely write from dictation.

As it has been pointed out already, the bible doesn't say Moses wrote Genesis. It doesn't even say he wrote Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers or Deuteronomy......

It sounds like instead of arguing that Moses didn't write the Torah, you're making the case instead that it is possible Moses didn't write the Torah. The evidence you are offering is that it appears he wrote other books, therefore he must not have written the Torah. But this is not a valid argument by any stretch. Moses, by all accounts, would have been a very good writer.

There is evidence that some of the epistle writers wrote other letters that are not in the Bible. Does this mean they did not write the ones in the canon?

It's not a compelling argument. Let's see if your case gets stronger.

If you look at Joshua, you will find him not just reading the book of the law, Joshua 8:34, but adding to the scroll himself. Joshua 24:26 And Joshua wrote these words in the Book of the Law of God. Yet Joshua's words here are not found in any of the books of the Pentateuch you think Moses wrote even though the bible tells us Joshua wrote in the same scroll.

I'm not following the argument here either. So you say Joshua wrote in the book of the law, or that he didn't? Did Joshua write somewhere on the scroll or are you implying he added to the law of Moses? It would appear if he added to the actual law, we'd see it. Commentators seem to believe he merely wrote the words of this covenant on the scroll of the law somewhere to emphasize the seriousness of the matter. Maybe it was kind of like putting your hand on a bible and swearing. I don't think that's too far a stretch. I make notes on my bible all the time. Am I now a co-author? Am I adding to scripture?

Now, if you're merely saying that Moses had help with the Torah, I would have to agree to an extent. He needed God's help to be sure. He also would have needed someone to recored this death and burial. Even during the writing of the Torah, Moses may have used an account some members of his family wrote in Num. 3:1.

But the books are attributed to Moses. Jesus made it very clear he was the author, even making the statements Moses wrote.

Now I'm contrasting this with you case, that Moses did not actually write it, but all I'm getting is the idea that it's possible he didn't. You're not actually making a positive case for any author.

No, you still have two different texts composed in two different styles by two different writers, compiled together by an editor, whether the toledoth marks the end of the first account or the beginning of the second.

My statement was this it completely debunked the idea that there are 2 creations accounts. I never said they were not 2 different texts, by different authors, in fact I affirmed that. I never claimed they weren't compiled together.

I don't think you're following why the colophon phrase destroys the 2 creation account. Let me explain briefly. The account starting in 2:4b isn't a creation account at all. It's the account of the Garden of Eden, the Fall, and events shortly after the fall. The only reason anyone considered it to be a creation account of the heavens and earth is because they thought Gen. 2:4 a was a title. Now that we have textual evidence it could have been a colophon, everything falls into place. I would think even the most hardened TE would admit his.

According to Wiseman's interpretation, the colophon, assuming it is a colophon, could refer to the writer, the owner, or the subject of the text. It is pure speculation to assume it means Adam was the writer of the genealogy rather than the plain meaning of the Hebrew that the subject was the genealogy of Adam. The use of the toledoth to describe the subject of the genealogy rather than the author also fits the very first toledoth, the generations of the heaven and earth which do describe creation, of the heaven and the earth in the first account, and the earth in the second, but were hardly written by the heaven and earth.

Okay, you've misunderstood a lot of things both from Wisman and myself. First, Adam is not the author of a genealogy in Genesis, nor does it make sense that he would be. Only someone with fathers and grandfathers and great grandfathers would be in possession of a genealogy. Adam certainly would not be the writer or owner of a genealogy like this, that started with him and recored his own death. In the Tablet theory, Noah is the owner of this tablet. And it makes perfect sense. He is the only one in the genealogy that has not died yet.

And yes you are right, a colophon could refer to the writer, the owner, or the subject of the text. In this case, it seems context is making it very clear it is the actual authors in Genesis. They never actually record the deaths of any of the signers. Thus the plain signature, this is the account of Noah, this is the account of Shem, etc. They are in essence, family histories, and if the subject of the text is not recorded as dying, this suggests it he is actually the author. Again, context is what I'm drawing from. All the discoveries did was make me aware of the colophon writing style. We don't this turn a blind eye to context.

Writing may predate Abraham but you need to be careful trying to apply scientific dating to creationist dating systems which compress the history of human habitation of the Middle East into a much short times span. If you are trying to compare the two dating systems you need to realise that the evidence from archaeology puts the origin of writing long after the earliest settlements in the region. Before writing was developed sufficiently to record stories, simpler forms were used for counting and keeping accounts of quantities being stored and traded, followed by simple symbols identifying what was being counted. It is interesting that while there is no reference to writing or books before Moses, we do have references to counting or numbering with Abraham, Gen 15:5 And he brought him outside and said, "Look toward heaven, and number the stars, if you are able to number them." The word number according to Strongs is saphar "A primitive root; properly to score with a mark as a tally or record". You had numbers before that, just look at Noah dealing with seven pairs of clean animals, but no reference to writing the numbers down or keeping a tally. Even if some cities were experimenting with recording their stories on clays tablets, this skill would have been impractical for a nomadic herdsman, large clay tablets telling stories needed libraries or temples to store them. It was only when the Israelites came out of Egypt the home of papyrus that we read of them writing their accounts in scrolls, they did have two tablets with writing on them, but these were carried by a team of levites.

This of course is based on an evolutionary presupposition that men evolved. I don't share that presupposition. Adam was created very smart. The talking and reasoning skills of the Genesis people suggests intelligence. I have no problem believing they had had a written as well as spoken language. If Noah could learn to build an ark, he could learn to write. In fact the writing would have been very advanced being the world spoke one language at the time. Written language may have slowed a bit at the time of the dispersement, but again, humans were created intelligent.

Even if they were the authors, it doesn't make the texts literal. Remember you have two different with two different accounts of the creation each giving a different sequence of the creation. That is not what you would expect from two literal historical records.

No, there is only one creation account. The next account is about a Garden which God planted. Perhaps the plants of the field is a phrase stumbling you. It's very simple, though. Field plants were cultivated plants. Those required 2 things: a human cultivator, and water. Read the text carefully. You'll see it, I promise.

What confused modern cultures about this, is the ostensible title phrase which seemed to imply this was a creation account. Once that is gone, the meaning just falls of the text. This was the Garden/Fall account of Adam.

From the editorial comments in the Pentateuch it is more likely Moses writings were edited too, rather than him being the one who did the editing. But even if Moses edited Genesis, the Israelites and their forefathers had spent time in both Egypt and Mesopotamia, there is no reason the creation accounts could not have been written to refute pagan creation stories they were surrounded by, echoing these stories in the the process of refuting them and pointing to the Lord as the creator.

For those who don't believe Genesis, yes, there is no reason. But I believe the historical narrative of Genesis. I don't think it was merely a made up lie to battle another religion.

I would have though a better approach would be to look at the text objectively and see what sort of cultural and cosmological background it was written in. If there isn't any to be seen, then fair enough, but if there is, then why shouldn't we understand that God spoke to people of that time in terms they understood, rather than assume God couldn't or wouldn't speak to people that way and force these preconceptions into the text?

I think that Moses and the people of this time understood these colophon phrases. And I think they perfectly understood the creation account.

I'm referring to issue like etymology, in which we try to understand words like rayqia from ANE culture rather than from the actual usage in Genesis. I'm speaking about applying cosmologies to Genesis from ANE cultures which came thousands of years later, rather than looking at the usage and context of what is written in Genesis.

I really appreciate Wiseman's book, it revolutionised my understanding of Genesis back when I was a literalist and a creationist. It made me realise there were other ways to understand the text other than the straight literal six day reading of Genesis 1, IIRC he claimed that God revealed the six days to Adam over six days rather than creation itself taking place in six days. I found it very encouraging too at the time that Genesis was a reliable account written by eye witnesses with the tablets passed down through the generations from patriarch to patriarch.

Who claimed this? I've not seen this claimed in the tablet theory.

It was only gradually I began to realise Wiseman didn't actually have any evidence to support this claim. But it did show me that there were different ways to read the text and instead of being threatened by documentary hypothesis, that the text of Genesis itself supports the idea it was edited together from other texts, though I think their ideas of who wrote the different sources, JEDP, and their reasons for writing them, are pretty speculative too. But I don't have a problem with the possibility of post exilic composition, the book of Psalms with contains psalms of David as well as laments about exile in Babylon must have been compiled in this period.

What the Wisemans discoveries and research did, was blow the claim out of the water that writings didn't exist at the time of Abraham and earlier. This was the premise of the early JEDP theory. People latched onto it and have never let go, even those the staring premise died a long time ago. There is nothing to JEDP except they noticed different writing styles within Genesis. It's an obsolete theory, that's remained popular.
 
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Calminian

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Calminian, I've read all of this thread, as well as the article you posted, and I still don't have any idea of what you see as the positive evidence for your view. I thought my example with Genesis 10 might help, but while you quoted the two questions I asked you, you didn't answer them. I still don't know how you determine Genesis 10:1 contains a colophon and Genesis 10:32 doesn't, or how the Genesis colophons are similar to those ancient finds that you've mentioned so frequently, yet never detailed.

That's okay. I'm not really trying to convince you, per se. I merely wanted to answer your objections, which I feel I did pretty thoroughly. Gen. 10:1 was one of the easier ones in my view. Some others required a lot more research.

But I'm not shocked a hardened TE would not accept the tablet theory and become a YEC overnight. I'm not so naive to think that this is a neutral debate, and our views don't have deeper roots.

I"m actually glade you participated. You gave me the opportunity to clear some common objections. From my perspective, I was surprised how easy it was. I don't say that to be arrogant, just to show how differently different people can see different things.

Once thing's for sure, I'm done for the day! (at least I hope so)
 
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Calminian

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Calminian, I've read all of this thread, as well as the article you posted, and I still don't have any idea of what you see as the positive evidence for your view. I thought my example with Genesis 10 might help, but while you quoted the two questions I asked you, you didn't answer them. I still don't know how you determine Genesis 10:1 contains a colophon and Genesis 10:32 doesn't, or how the Genesis colophons are similar to those ancient finds that you've mentioned so frequently, yet never detailed.

You'll have to forgive me. I thought I had answered, but I'm going through a lot of questions and challenges and miss things once in a while. I'm spending several hours on these posts. I did say that I thought the entire verse of 10:1 was likely the colophon phrase. Some split it up.

I noticed Sewell doesn't recognize 10:32 as a colophon phrase and I'm not sure why, though I have some ideas. I'll have to research that. Right off the bat I'm noticing there is no name and that it doesn't seem to have much in common with the rest of the Genesis toledoth phrases that are easily noticed. The NIV is consistent in their translation of all the Genesis colophon phrases except this one.

Gen. 10:32 These are the clans of Noah’s sons, according to their lines of descent, within their nations. From these the nations spread out over the earth after the flood.​

It appears that's also because of the context. It doesn't call out an author or even authors, but clans, which are descendants, and seems merely a reference to the genealogy which couldn't be authors or owners of a writing. Looking at this entire verse, I can see why it wasn't considered, at least by some Tablet models.

I don't know for sure why Sewell didn't count this one, but I have a pretty good guess it's along the lines of why the NIV translated this the way it did. I think there are some models that included it, but at this time, looking at context and usage, I think I'd side with Sewell. The word toledoth is not enough. It's about context.

This can't simply be about the word toledot itself, since neither that word nor its translation is found in other ancient tablet colophons. That word also isn't found in Exodus 1:6, which you claim to be the last colophon for the Joseph portion of Genesis. It can't be whether there is a name or not, since the example you see as most clear, Genesis 2:4, doesn't include a name.

No, you are right this can't be about a hebrew word. Wiseman never made this claim. Rather it is about structure. The phrases in Genesis that have the word toledoth are very similar to the phrases in the ancient documents in structure.

But it's even much more than that, as I've been echoing over and over in my replies to you. The magic wasn't finding similar structures in Genesis and in ancient tablets. The magic is how the colophon phrases unlock Genesis and solve just about every problem hurled at it by higher critics from the 2 creation accounts to cain's wife, to strange passages that don't seem to fit together.

A large part of what you seem to find convincing is the way the NIV translates this word as "account", which to you implies an "accounter". Yet even in English, "account of Adam" can mean an account about Adam just as easily as it can mean an account by Adam. What evidence leads you to believe it means the second, or that the more literal translations as "generations" or "descendents" are incorrect?

Yes, at this point I firmly believe those translations are not as accurate as account or chronicles. Wiseman had many scholars back him up on this, but again, context and usage is always the key. For instance look at Jacob's toledoth statement.

This is the genealogy of Jacob. Joseph, a young man of seventeen, ...

Huh? This is just one of many issues solved by the "account" interpretation.

In Genesis 6:9 you have the "genealogy" of Noah, but there's not a genealogy mentioned prior. Translate it "account", and the problem is solved.

If you think about, there aren't enough genealogies in Genesis to go around. :)

If you take Numbers as written by Moses, we have evidence in Numbers 3:1 that Moses used a toledot statement to introduce a section of family information.

I'm not so sure it is frankly.

This verse introduces rather than concludes a section, and it does not mark off that section as having a different author, but rather describes its subject. This is exactly the way the toledot statements in Genesis are also traditionally read. This does not support that Moses understood them as author's signatures appended to the end of accounts. The one time Moses used a toledot statement outside of Genesis, he used it in a way that confirms the traditional interpretation, not the tablet view.

The argument doesn't follow. I don't know if it is actually a title statement. You say it is, but I don't see you making a very good case. Plus, this is written in Moses' time. Literary structures may have changed, or perhaps these phrases could have gone either way in Moses' time. It would have been thousands of years later.

I don't see why not. It is followed by a quick mention of God making the earth and the heavens (2:4b) followed by a focus on Eden. Actions in Eden are central to understanding the "generations of the heavens and the earth."

Yeah, I'm afraid the favorite TE criticism of 2 creation accounts is obliterated by the tablet theory. The title understanding was the only thing keeping that argument together. What follows is neither a creation account of heaven or earth, but the Garden account, followed by their exile from the Garden.

No, it is also based on the two accounts describing some of the same things (such as the creation of people, plants and land animals), yet doing so in different ways. ..

Oy, this is so not true. There's nothing in that text about the creation of animals, nor the creation of plants. It mentions the creation of animals prior to God having Adam name them, and it speaks of plants of the field which are grown by man—cultivated plants. Unless you really believe the author meant to say God was going to give adam an animal mate until Adam turned it down. The argument has nothing pulling it together without 2:4a.

Again, had we not assumed a title structure of writing, these objections never would have made it out of the gate.

There is no reason to view the toledot statement of Genesis 2:4 as a signature. It does not even include a name!

All I can say is we grow attached to arguments, and when it's time to let them go, sometimes it's hard. The context makes it very clear why the very first colophon phrase has no name and why it should be viewed as a colophon.

I don't expect you to just drop the 2 creations argument. I'm just saying it's lost its teeth.

The tablet theory claims that even this section is an eyewitness report recorded on a tablet, perhaps by an angel or God. If this were the case, there would be no need to hide this fact. When God gave the Decalogue to Moses, Moses doesn't record that he received the tablets from "the heavens and the earth." He is direct in saying they were from God. Why the hesitation to be direct here?

For one it's not a colophon phrase. Two, it would be repetitive. The Tablet starts with in the beginning God created..... I

But the pattern is undeniable. Look at the context of what precedes the phrase and what proceeds after it. It's a no brainer. The vary fact that you're fighting to keep it in as a title phrase is evidence that you don't believe the following material passes for a creation account without it.

Do you, for the same reason, think someone other than Moses wrote Numbers 12:3?

I'm not a hard liner that Moses had to write every word of his books. They are his books, yet I have no problem with others writing his obituary or other portions. He is the compiler, and they are his books. He translated compiled and wrote. The translating and compiling required writing just as much as the portions he wrote from his own experience. Genesis as well as the rest are the books of Moses.

In fact I have a lot of admiration for Moses. Like most creationist I don't believe he merely received dictation. That would have been much easier. Moses had quite a task before him, putting together Genesis and the other books the way he did. The Tablet theory has put him in a new light for me.
 
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Treating the Toledot statements as colophons ONLY works for the first 4 or so, after that you have strange ones such as Shem signing off on the Tower of Babel account....

At least you're admitting some work beautifully. That's a start.

I wish you knew your Bible better, though. Shem would have been the perfect author for Babel. He lived through the Babel events and long after. Men were united at that time, sharing the same culture and the same geographic location. Shem would have been the elder of elders at that time. And interestingly, he outlive them all as well. He experienced Babel from conception to destruction. It's one of the most logical colophon phrases of Genesis (though they are all pretty cool).

Esau signing off on some of his ancestore and the wild adventures of Jacob, Jacob signing off on Esau's descendents, if you want to dismiss these as headings instead then you are inconsistently applying your hermeneutic.

Actually this portion makes perfect sense. When you look at the context and how these portions read, they flow together. Neither Esau or Ishmael were major players, but Moses included their lines, very likely because their lines were already in included on Isaac and Jacobs tablets. It's very obvious they are just brief insertions, and the title aspect of the toledoths are obvious. Context context context. Ismael's is just a brief portion at the end of Isaac's. It's clear and then right at the end Isaac signs off. Esau's is also brief, and is also entered right at the end of Jacob's. His account is sandwiched between a title and signature, and then Jacob's signatures appears right afterward. It's almost impossible to miss.

It's also interesting that we have direct scriptural evidence that Jacob came into contact with Esau, and Isaac came into contact with Ishmael. Everything fits perfectly.

One you understand the toledoth statements can be footers, it's actually very easy to discern these things. You even admit they work for the first 4 phrases. I think if you open your mind you'll see just about every one of them makes perfect sense. I'm actually a bit surprised more anomalies don't exist.
 
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Some wisdom from Henry Morris. I came across this gem and had to post it, as it relates to one of the main objections that has been raised here about the methods Moses employed in composing the Pentateuch—that somehow him compiling the genesis record undermines scripture and its inspiration, and affects it believability. The late HM Morris addressed this so concisely I thought I'd just post it.

Excerpted from Henry M. Morris, the Genesis Record, pp. 25-30

Moses as the Author

Probably most conservative scholars in the past have accepted the view that Genesis was written by Moses. This has been the uniform tradition of both the Jewish scribes and the Christian fathers. Genesis is considered to be the first book in the Pentateuch (the others being Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy), and all of them together taken as the Law (Hebrew, torah) of Moses. This general view was apparently accepted by Christ Himself: "And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself.... These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me" (Luke 24:27,44).

Assuming that Moses was responsible for the Book of Genesis as it has come down to us, there still remains the question as to the method by which he received and transmitted it. There are three possibilities: (a) he received it all by direct revelation from God, either in the form of audible words dictated by God and transcribed by him, or else by visions given him of the great events of the past, which he then put down in his own words, as guided subconsciously by the Holy Spirit; (b) he received it all by oral traditions, passed down over the centuries from father to son, which he then collected and wrote down, again as guided by the Holy Spirit; (c) ho took actual written records of the past, collected them, and brought them together into a final form, again as guided by the Holy Spirit.

Evidently any of these methods would be consistent with both the doctrine of plenary verbal inspiration and that of Mosaic authorship. However, neither of the first two methods has a parallel anywhere in the canon of Scripture. "Visions and revelations of the Lord" normally have to do with prophetic revelations of the future (as in Daniel, Ezekiel, Revelation, etc.). The direct dictation method of inspiration was used mainly for promulgation of specific laws and ordinances (as in the Ten Commandments, the Book of Leviticus, etc.). The Book of Genesis, however, is entirely in the form of narrative records of historical events. Biblical parallels to Genesis are found in such books as Kings, Chronicles, Acts, and so forth. In all of these, the writer either collected previous documents and edited them (e.g., I and II Kings, I and II Chronicles), or else recorded the events which he had either seen himself or had ascertained from others who were witnesses (e.g., Luke, Acts).

It is also significant that, although the Book of Genesis is quoted from or alluded to at least two hundred times in the New Testament, as we have already noted, in none of these references is it ever stated that Moses was the actual author. This is especially significant in view of the fact that Moses is mentioned by name at least eighty times in the New Testament, approximately twenty-five of which refer to specific passages attributed to Moses in the other books of the Pentateuch.

While this evidence is not conclusive, it does favor the explanation that, while Moses actually wrote the books of Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy, he served mainly as compiler and editor of the material in the Book of Genesis. This in no way minimizes the work of the Holy Spirit, who infallibly guided him in this process of compilation and editing, just as He later did the unknown compiler and editor of the Book of Kings and Chronicles. It would still be appropriate to include Genesis as one of the books of Moses, since he is the human writer responsible for its present form. In fact, this explanation gives further testimony to the authenticity of the events recorded in Genesis, since we can now recognize them all as firsthand testimony.​

Read the full excerpt here

In the linked excerpt he goes on to explain his view of the tablet theory. It's a good read from the heroic father the modern creation science movement.
 
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I've been wanting to get to this post. :)
Hope you enjoyed it :cool:

Well, it appears we have some agreements here. Even I noticed differences in the text and sensed we were dealing with multiple books within a book. I have no doubt this is what some of the early JEDP theorists picked up on. The problem is the direction they went with it. I have no issue with the existence of multiple styles within Genesis, but the theories that followed just didn't follow were haven't been born out by any evidence.
I don't hold all the later developments myself but then again I am not familiar enough with the literature to know the arguments and the strength of the arguments used for the different points

The Tablet theory actually offers historical textual support to this issue, and preserves the authorship of Moses.
Be careful not to overestimate the strength of the evidence because you like what it says. The identification of the toledoth as colophons, conclusions to each document, is by no means certain and there are very strong arguments against it, the rest, claiming the colophons are signatures and that there was writing in Adam's time is unsupported speculation.

Well there was also the issue of translating, and the issue of sifting out which writings didn't belong, and compiling the various accounts into one book.

The church has always held, though, that God is the true author of Genesis, and Moses was merely an instrument. Even those that believe in the dictation theory are in essence admitting that Moses really didn't have anything to do with the book, here merely wrote down the words God dictated. I think the Tablet theory actually gives Moses a more prominent role. Compiling ancient works like this is no easy task. A child could merely write from dictation.
I don't think we can devalue (not that I think you do :) ) any of the diverse the ways God spoke to through his word whether the prophet writing down the words God spoke to him, the chronicler recording the histories or the psalmist in pouring his heart out to God. I think the important thing is to realise that the work of an editor is a really important and is no less subject to the inspiration and guidance of God than a prophet. But once you realise that, why is there a need to make Moses the editor of the Pentateuch? Isn't it enough that Moses is the main (human) character of the books of Moses, that the Mosaic law is its main theme, and that Moses own writings make up that main body of the text. Mark 1:1 calls the book the Gospel of Jesus Christ, yet Jesus wrote none of it.
As it has been pointed out already, the bible doesn't say Moses wrote Genesis. It doesn't even say he wrote Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers or Deuteronomy......

<snip> It talks of him writing, and he is the first person in the bible ever said to write or have books or scrolls. But the scrolls he is said to have written do not match our Pentateuch, Exodus 17 is a typical example. Exodus 17:13 And Joshua overwhelmed Amalek and his people with the sword. 14 Then the LORD said to Moses, "Write this as a memorial in a book and recite it in the ears of Joshua, that I will utterly blot out the memory of Amalek from under heaven."15 And Moses built an altar and called the name of it, The LORD Is My Banner... We have a long description of the battle with the Amalekites, God telling Moses to write down his Judgement against the Amalekites and read it to Joshua then a description of Moses building the altar. In the whole chapter, the only thing Moses is described as writing is the judgement God pronounced. We have repeated description of God telling Moses to write down the laws God gave him, but they are found in books that not only contain laws but also the history of when the laws were given and descriptions of God telling Moses to write these laws. If Genesis can be composed of older books compiled by an unnamed editor, why couldn't Exodus to Deuteronomy be compiled by a later editor from older books including the writings of Moses? In fact we hear from this later editor in Num 21:14 where he refers to an earlier book, the Book of the Wars of the Lord. </snip>
It sounds like instead of arguing that Moses didn't write the Torah, you're making the case instead that it is possible Moses didn't write the Torah. The evidence you are offering is that it appears he wrote other books, therefore he must not have written the Torah. But this is not a valid argument by any stretch. Moses, by all accounts, would have been a very good writer.
Interesting how you ignore the evidence of what the bible tells us Moses actually wrote and what is not described as being written by him.

Is there any reason to think he did write the five books of the Pentateuch in that form? We are told repeatedly about the scrolls he did write and there is no mention of him editing them into the Pentateuch. There is one book of the law, which Moses kept adding to and was carried in the Ark of the Covenant. When Joshua entered the promised land they keep referring back to the Book of the Law, not multiple books of the law including the original scroll and Pentateuch Moses edited. At the end of his life Joshua and the Israelites renewed their covenant with God at Shechem and wrote the covenant they made it in the Book of the Law Joshua 24:26. So whenever the different texts were edited together, the book of the Law, texts like Jasher, the Book of the Wars of the Lord, the tablets of the Ten Commandments and Moses' list of stages of their Journeys through Sinai (Num 33:2), to give us the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy and Joshua, it was after Joshua added to the Book of the Law. There simply isn't any evidence that the books of Genesis to Deuteronomy in the form we have now existed in the time of Moses or during the conquest. Throughout Chronicles and Kings all the way to the book of Nehemiah they are still talking about this single Book of the Law rather than anything like the books of Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy. Remember the great act of national repentance when Hilkah found the Book of the Law and brought it to Josiah (2Chron 34:15)? If they already had Moses’ edited versions of the scroll in the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy, they would have know about the blessing and curses in the scroll of the Law. Josiah would not have been so shocked at the discovery of the original scroll. The scroll Hilkah found was the only form of the law they had.


There is evidence that some of the epistle writers wrote other letters that are not in the Bible. Does this mean they did not write the ones in the canon?
Do the epistles in the bible say Paul wrote them?

It's not a compelling argument. Let's see if your case gets stronger.
I have based my argument on what the bible actually says Moses wrote and what scripture tells us happened to his writings through the OT. You admit Genesis was edited together from earlier texts, and admit inspired editors can be just as valid a way for God to give us the bible so there is no reason, other than tradition, to have a problem with Moses’ writings being edited later. You claim Moses is the one who edited Genesis but don’t have any evidence he was the editor, and you haven’t produced any evidence that the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy, the form we have of Moses original writings today, were edited together by Moses.

I'm not following the argument here either. So you say Joshua wrote in the book of the law, or that he didn't? Did Joshua write somewhere on the scroll or are you implying he added to the law of Moses? It would appear if he added to the actual law, we'd see it. Commentators seem to believe he merely wrote the words of this covenant on the scroll of the law somewhere to emphasize the seriousness of the matter. Maybe it was kind of like putting your hand on a bible and swearing. I don't think that's too far a stretch. I make notes on my bible all the time. Am I now a co-author? Am I adding to scripture?
No you are not adding to scripture when you write in your bible but Joshua certainly was. I agree it was the renewed covenant Joshua wrote in the scroll, but this is hardly equivalent to scribbling notes in the margins of your bible, The covenant he wrote has been preserved in the book of Joshua as the inspired word of God. You are not the leader of the people of Israel, Moses didn't lay his hands on you an invest you with his authority, God did not promise you to exalt you in the sight of Israel that they will know that the Lord is with you as he was with Moses. You may write your notes in the bible but they aren't in mine. We have words Joshua wrote in the scroll in both our bibles, but it is in a different book to the scroll of the Law Joshua wrote it in, just as the words Moses wrote in the scroll are spread over different books from Exodus to Deuteronomy.

Now, if you're merely saying that Moses had help with the Torah, I would have to agree to an extent. He needed God's help to be sure. He also would have needed someone to recored this death and burial. Even during the writing of the Torah, Moses may have used an account some members of his family wrote in Num. 3:1.
So you have yet another text, the census of Israel taken by appointed members of each tribe Num 1:3-16, which isn't the scroll of the Law Moses kept writing and it isn't the book of numbers with its description of how the census was carried out as well as the numbers the team took in the census.

But the books are attributed to Moses. Jesus made it very clear he was the author, even making the statements Moses wrote.
Does Jesus say Moses wrote the books of Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy, or does he attribute specific statements and laws to Moses and refer to the Torah by its common title ‘the book of Moses’, or simply ‘Moses’? Does Jesus describe anything written by Moses that would not have been in the original texts that are attributed to Moses in Exodus to Deuteronomy and later edited together into those books?

Now I'm contrasting this with you case, that Moses did not actually write it, but all I'm getting is the idea that it's possible he didn't. You're not actually making a positive case for any author.
We need to distinguish what the bible says Moses wrote and what it doesn't say he wrote. The bible doesn't say Moses wrote the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy in the form we have them today. I am making the case Moses wrote some of the original documents that were later edited together into our modern Pentateuch, like the Song of Moses and the original Scroll of the Law was added to by Joshua, and copied and handed down through the generations to the time of Nehemiah.

My statement was this it completely debunked the idea that there are 2 creations accounts. I never said they were not 2 different texts, by different authors, in fact I affirmed that. I never claimed they weren't compiled together.

I don't think you're following why the colophon phrase destroys the 2 creation account. Let me explain briefly. The account starting in 2:4b isn't a creation account at all. It's the account of the Garden of Eden, the Fall, and events shortly after the fall. The only reason anyone considered it to be a creation account of the heavens and earth is because they thought Gen. 2:4 a was a title. Now that we have textual evidence it could have been a colophon, everything falls into place. I would think even the most hardened TE would admit his.
It isn’t Genesis 2:4 that tells me the second account is a creation account, it is the text itself. The account describes the earth as a barren wilderness before there were any plants and tells us how God formed man and planted the first trees, how he formed all the animals and all the birds and then how he formed Eve. Of course it is a creation account. Like the first creation account it starts with the earth an empty desolation, only in the first account it is a watery desolation and in the second account it is a dry one. The order of creation in both accounts is very different too, but that just shows us the accounts are not meant as literal history.

Oh dear one of these again...

<split>
 
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Okay, you've misunderstood a lot of things both from Wisman and myself. First, Adam is not the author of a genealogy in Genesis, nor does it make sense that he would be. Only someone with fathers and grandfathers and great grandfathers would be in possession of a genealogy. Adam certainly would not be the writer or owner of a genealogy like this, that started with him and recored his own death. In the Tablet theory, Noah is the owner of this tablet. And it makes perfect sense. He is the only one in the genealogy that has not died yet.
Didn&#8217;t you say: &#8220;Adam was one of the original authors Moses worked off&#8221;?

Family trees can run both ways, there is no reason a toledoth should not list descendants rather than ancestry. Besides even if you take the book of the generations of Adam as a colophon and ignore his descendants in Genesis 3&4, Genesis 2 still describes Adam&#8217;s creation, just as Genesis 1 describes God creating the heavens and the earth.

And yes you are right, a colophon could refer to the writer, the owner, or the subject of the text. In this case, it seems context is making it very clear it is the actual authors in Genesis. They never actually record the deaths of any of the signers. Thus the plain signature, this is the account of Noah, this is the account of Shem, etc. They are in essence, family histories, and if the subject of the text is not recorded as dying, this suggests it he is actually the author. Again, context is what I'm drawing from. All the discoveries did was make me aware of the colophon writing style. We don't this turn a blind eye to context.
Why would these accounts have to mention their death? Certainly it would be a problem for the colophon hypothesis and specifically the claim it meant the writer, if the person supposedly writing the account had already died, (not that it stops people claiming Moses wrote Deuteronomy :D ) but they the fact they don&#8217;t mention their death does not mean the colophon idea is true. Account is a pretty loose interpretation of toledoth which literally means a genealogy or descent. In the context of Genesis &#8216;account of the heavens and the earth&#8217; does not mean the heavens and the earth wrote them, or even owned them. It is the story about their origin. Why shouldn&#8217;t toledoth be used the same way in used in the rest of Genesis and mean the genealogy or the story about Adam or Noah? We have Psalms of David and the Prayer of Moses which were written by David and Moses, but they do not write it the way the generations of Noah is written, toledoth nuach, one noun following the other. To indicate a psalm of David, or rather a psalm written by David, the Hebrew uses the preposition le, it says mizmor le&#8217;daviyd.

But if a colophon can simple be a title, then there is no basis for the wild speculation that Adam wrote some of the text of Genesis or that writing even existed back then.

This of course is based on an evolutionary presupposition that men evolved. I don't share that presupposition. Adam was created very smart. The talking and reasoning skills of the Genesis people suggests intelligence. I have no problem believing they had had a written as well as spoken language. If Noah could learn to build an ark, he could learn to write. In fact the writing would have been very advanced being the world spoke one language at the time. Written language may have slowed a bit at the time of the dispersement, but again, humans were created intelligent.
If you are using the argument that human writing predates Abraham, then you need to work out where Abraham fits in the in the dating system used to measure the earliest writing, you may not agree with that dating system, you may dismiss it as based on evolutionary assumptions, which it is not, but you still have to deal with the archaeological sequence that contains the earliest writings and where they appear in the sequence. Being intelligent is no guarantee people can write there are plenty of very intelligent people who live and lived in illiterate societies, but writing only arose a few times in human history. There is no evidence of writing in the earliest societies, and no evidence in scripture that anyone in the bible before the time of Moses could write.

If Wisemans&#8217; evidence for the different uses of colophons comes from much later in the archaeological record than the use he claim for Adam&#8217;s text, then not only is he making up much earlier writing than we have any evidence for, he is being anachronistic in reading the supposed colophon in Adam&#8217;s text as if it were a much later Babylonian tablet.


No, there is only one creation account. The next account is about a Garden which God planted. Perhaps the plants of the field is a phrase stumbling you. It's very simple, though. Field plants were cultivated plants. Those required 2 things: a human cultivator, and water. Read the text carefully. You'll see it, I promise.
Gen 2:20 The man gave names to all livestock and to the birds of the heavens and to every beast of the field. Why would you think &#8216;plants of the field&#8217; means cultivated plants when &#8216;beasts of the field&#8217; is a separate category to livestock? But it is not just plants that hadn&#8217;t been created yet, the account describes God creating man and wild animals, livestock and birds and finally the woman.

What confused modern cultures about this, is the ostensible title phrase which seemed to imply this was a creation account. Once that is gone, the meaning just falls of the text. This was the Garden/Fall account of Adam.
You don&#8217;t need the word creation to have a creation account, there are different words in the bible that describe how God made everything, even Genesis 1 uses the words create and made, said&#8230; and &#8216;there was&#8217;. The creation account in Proverbs 8 makes no mention of the word create, neither does the creation account in Job 38. The creation account in Psalm 104 does use create, but only at the end in verse 30 to describe the ongoing creation of the earth at the end of every dry season, not to describe the work of creation itself. I recognised Genesis 2 as a creation account back when I was convinced Gen 2:4 was a colophon.

For those who don't believe Genesis, yes, there is no reason. But I believe the historical narrative of Genesis. I don't think it was merely a made up lie to battle another religion.
But the idea that it is meant to be taken literally that it is meant as history are assumptions you bring into the text, not what we can learn about Genesis from the text itself, from other references in scripture showing us how the bible was composed and from what we understand of the text in the context it was written in. How can it be meant as a literal historical chronology when it is placed where it is in the book of Genesis with another creation account right after it which gives a completely different order of creation? You are assuming anything that isn&#8217;t literal must be a lie, which is a strange attitude for anyone who values how the bible speaks to us in both literal and non literal passages.

I think that Moses and the people of this time understood these colophon phrases. And I think they perfectly understood the creation account.
You are assuming they were colophons and that the Israelites would have recognised them as such :) But the toledoths wouldn&#8217;t make any difference to people recognising a refutation of well known Egyptian or Babylonian creation myths. Nor is there any reason to think they would have interpreted them as signatures of the people names when the Hebrew describes them as genealogies of the people whose names they bear. They would hardly have been likely to think the heavens and the earth wrote or owned the first toledoth.

I'm referring to issue like etymology, in which we try to understand words like rayqia from ANE culture rather than from the actual usage in Genesis. I'm speaking about applying cosmologies to Genesis from ANE cultures which came thousands of years later, rather than looking at the usage and context of what is written in Genesis.
But that is what raqia meant and if the plain and simple meanings cosmologies we see in Genesis fit the cosmology back then shouldn&#8217;t we be open enough to accept that rather than trying to make the passages say things that fit modern cosmology when there isn&#8217;t a hint of it in the text? If we trust God and love and honour his word we really need to understand what the text is saying and understand how it is saying it, rather than making it fit our preconceptions. You should not be afraid of God speaking this way if that is what the text shows us. He is God we can still love a trust him when he doesn't do thing the way we would.

Who claimed this? I've not seen this claimed in the tablet theory.
It was certainly my reaction on reading Wiseman&#8217;s book.

What the Wisemans discoveries and research did, was blow the claim out of the water that writings didn't exist at the time of Abraham and earlier. This was the premise of the early JEDP theory. People latched onto it and have never let go, even those the staring premise died a long time ago. There is nothing to JEDP except they noticed different writing styles within Genesis. It's an obsolete theory, that's remained popular.[/quote]
Wiseman&#8217;s discovery that the text was edited together from earlier documents fully supports the texts identified by the analysis of the documentary hypothesis. His claim that these were colophons rather than introductory titles is controversial and rather dubious; it makes sense in some passages and not others, while the identification as titles works better generally. His claim writing predates Abraham does not bring writing back to the time of Adam, it does not mean that Abraham himself could write or that he wandered around with a portable library of clay tablets. Wiseman&#8217;s interpretation of the colophon as a signature is only one use of colophons they could also refer to the subject of the tablet which in fact fits the Hebrew much better. So no, Wiseman did not blow anything out of the water. The idea of writing not being around in Abraham&#8217;s time was only on supporting argument for the documentary hypothesis, while the text of scripture itself suggests the Hebrews were illiterate before the time of Moses and that Abraham was only numerate not literate.
 
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I noticed Sewell doesn't recognize 10:32 as a colophon phrase and I'm not sure why, though I have some ideas. I'll have to research that. Right off the bat I'm noticing there is no name and that it doesn't seem to have much in common with the rest of the Genesis toledoth phrases that are easily noticed. The NIV is consistent in their translation of all the Genesis colophon phrases except this one.

Gen. 10:32 These are the clans of Noah’s sons, according to their lines of descent, within their nations. From these the nations spread out over the earth after the flood.​

It appears that's also because of the context. It doesn't call out an author or even authors, but clans, which are descendants, and seems merely a reference to the genealogy which couldn't be authors or owners of a writing. Looking at this entire verse, I can see why it wasn't considered, at least by some Tablet models.
Gen 10:32 doesn't fit the usual toledoth structure, 'the generations of suchandsuch'. what is interesting is where in the text it comes.
Gen 10:1 These are the generations [toledoth] of the sons of Noah, Shem, Ham, and Japheth...
This is followed by a long list of the descendants of Noah's son which concludes with
Gen 10:32 These are the clans of the sons of Noah, according to their genealogies [toledoth], in their nations, and from these the nations spread abroad on the earth after the flood.
Verse 32 may no use the wording we see in the usual toledoth descriptions, but it describe it as the same toledoth we read about in verse one the generations of the sons of Noah, and since the next chapter is Babel and the intervening verses between verse 1 and 32 are genealogies of the sons of Noah it shows us that Gen 10:1 the generations of the sons of Noah is a introductory title to the genealogies that follow it, while Gen 10:32 is the conclusion. If there was a collophon to that text it would be verse 32.
 
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Be careful not to overestimate the strength of the evidence because you like what it says. The identification of the toledoth as colophons, conclusions to each document, is by no means certain and there are very strong arguments against it, the rest, claiming the colophons are signatures and that there was writing in Adam's time is unsupported speculation.

I would say it's marvelously supported, but I'm coming to this subject with the belief that Genesis is a true narrative. I believe that men from their initial creation were smart enough to use language and therefore smart enough to create a written language. In fact, it seems reasonable, that God may have given Adam both. Clearly Adam was speaking from day one. This must have been supernaturally granted. Could writing have been also? Seems reasonable if the first premise is true, so the second would also be.

Now again, I've for a long time looked at the Genesis text and believed it was a compilation of multiple writings. The structure screams it. But it never dawned on me to not look at those toledoth statements as conclusions. I'm just like everyone else in my culture, very title oriented. Maybe that's because I don't live in an age where clay tablets were the norm. Once I opened my mind to this, it's seemed rather easy to follow each section, even those of Esau and Ismael.

I will get to most of your comments. Please stay tuned......
 
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I don't hold all the later developments myself but then again I am not familiar enough with the literature to know the arguments and the strength of the arguments used for the different points

The strength was they did notice signs of a redactor,of an editor of writings being brought together. The weakness is they then assumed without any evidence that the composition of the Torah must have been late, 1000 BC or later. This assumption lead to many other theories about writers that favored certain names of God over the others, none of which they ever found any evidence for either. They did however, notice differences in the accounts, and often it was along the same lines as what Wiseman discovered. But Wisman based his theory on actual evidence. He findings bore out the fact that it was not necessary to go against scriptural evidence, plus historical tradition that Genesis really was a book of Moses.

I don't think we can devalue (not that I think you do :) ) any of the diverse the ways God spoke to through his word whether the prophet writing down the words God spoke to him, the chronicler recording the histories or the psalmist in pouring his heart out to God. I think the important thing is to realise that the work of an editor is a really important and is no less subject to the inspiration and guidance of God than a prophet. But once you realise that, why is there a need to make Moses the editor of the Pentateuch? Isn't it enough that Moses is the main (human) character of the books of Moses, that the Mosaic law is its main theme, and that Moses own writings make up that main body of the text. Mark 1:1 calls the book the Gospel of Jesus Christ, yet Jesus wrote none of it.
Interesting how you ignore the evidence of what the bible tells us Moses actually wrote and what is not described as being written by him.

The first part is well taken. I have no problem with Moses being a redactor, and compiler or editor for not only Genesis but all his books. In fact, in some ways it gives me a lot more respect for him. Writing from dictation is quite easy. Sifting through ancient writings and putting together the masterpiece of Genesis is quite another. Plus, as Henry Morris pointed out, compiling for historical narratives is actually the norm in scripture.

But the fact that Jesus read from the Septuagint starting with Moses and the prophets, and claimed that Moses wrote of Him, is irrefutable evidence that the Jewish tradition of mosaic authorship is correct. These were his writings, regardless of where he drew the details from. But I have no problem with him working from other writings, even for the rest of the books. This would not at all affect them being his books, and his writings. I also don't have a problem with later editing, especially for his obituary. God very well could have guided this process as well.

Is there any reason to think he did write the five books of the Pentateuch in that form? We are told repeatedly about the scrolls he did write and there is no mention of him editing them into the Pentateuch. There is one book of the law, which Moses kept adding to and was carried in the Ark of the Covenant. When Joshua entered the promised land they keep referring back to the Book of the Law, not multiple books of the law including the original scroll and Pentateuch Moses edited.

Is it possible that a later editor under inspiration split the scroll into 3 books. Of course. But these are Moses' writings. That was what Jesus said. I mean let's face it, Ex. Lev. Num. all pretty much run together.

I would also grant that perhaps Moses worked with a scribe in the process of putting all these writings together. To what extent, i don't know. What I do know is, Jesus affirmed him being the author, and Wiseman obliterated the notion that writings didn't exist until 1000 BC. I also know that as a prince of Egypt, Moses would have been very educated and capable.

At the end of his life Joshua and the Israelites renewed their covenant with God at Shechem and wrote the covenant they made it in the Book of the Law Joshua 24:26. So whenever the different texts were edited together, the book of the Law, texts like Jasher, the Book of the Wars of the Lord, the tablets of the Ten Commandments and Moses' list of stages of their Journeys through Sinai (Num 33:2), to give us the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy and Joshua, it was after Joshua added to the Book of the Law. There simply isn't any evidence that the books of Genesis to Deuteronomy in the form we have now existed in the time of Moses or during the conquest.

How do you know the book of the law was different then? Everything may have been on one scroll, but that doesn't mean it was in a different form. And Deuteronomy was actually in the form of an ancient vassal contract which was between Moses' generation and God. It makes no sense if that wasn't penned during Moses's time.

The format of Deuteronomy follows the structure of Ancient Near Eastern treaties which were made between greater and lesser powers. Israel, the lesser power, had been freed from bondage as Egypt's vassal and was now voluntarily becoming the vassal of Yahweh. Therefore, the book of Deuteronomy is a treaty or contract between God and Israel.​

So book of the law, singular is not an issue for me. They're basically all running narratives, from Genesis to Deuteronomy. They flow together perfectly

What is your evidence that other books of the law were later added? I mean this phrase, "book of the law" was used even by Paul, who had the Septuagint. Was he referring to something outside of the Septuagint? It's very clear the books of moses were also called the book of the law.

Gotta go for now. You made a lot more points that deserve a response.
 
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It isn&#8217;t Genesis 2:4 that tells me the second account is a creation account, it is the text itself. The account describes the earth as a barren wilderness before there were any plants and tells us how God formed man and planted the first trees, how he formed all the animals and all the birds and then how he formed Eve.


That's actually and interpretation (a wrong one) that is feed by the creation account title myth. Look at the text very carefully, taking into consideration who the author of this tablet is. It's Adam himself, after he was created.

Now look at the first sentence:

When the LORD God made the earth and the heavens &#8212; and no shrub of the field had yet appeared on the earth and no plant of the field had yet sprung up, for the LORD God had not sent rain on the earth and there was no man to work the ground,

Now think about that, especially the explanation as to why no "field plants" had yet sprung up. Reason #1, there was no rain yet. But more important, reason #2, there were no farmers yet.

It should be immediately clear to any ancient reader that understood colophon phrases that this account, Adam's, was not talking about the creation of plants, but rather the planting and cultivation of plants. Let's read on...

.....Now the LORD God had planted a garden in the east, in Eden; and there he put the man he had formed.

Garden, cultivated plants? Starting to make sense? The fact that God created the plants on day 3 doesn't mean that cultivated plants existed yet. Those he left for man to plant and toil over.

Now again, no one understanding the writing structure of this account would be confused by that. It would have been obvious that these were cultivated farmed plants that that the author was talking about. But at the same time, I can understand why someone would think this to be a creation account if it had the title over it, "This is the creation account of the Heavens and the Earth." That would get people thinking. But once that title is taken away, and you realize this was a story that Adam wrote or owned, everything falls into place.

Later in the account there seems to be a passage about the creation of animals. But here again, when we realize this was Adam's account of the Garden, we realize that this also is not saying Animals were created right then, after Adam, but rather they were being showcased in front of Adam for the purpose of naming them. Adam merely shared that God formed animals out of the ground. This is why the NIV translates the passage, "now the Lord had formed."

Once you apply proper understandings of ancient writing structures, all difficulties disappear.
 
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Didn&#8217;t you say: &#8220;Adam was one of the original authors Moses worked off&#8221;?

Family trees can run both ways, there is no reason a toledoth should not list descendants rather than ancestry. Besides even if you take the book of the generations of Adam as a colophon and ignore his descendants in Genesis 3&4, Genesis 2 still describes Adam&#8217;s creation, just as Genesis 1 describes God creating the heavens and the earth.

Wiseman noted that all the colophon phrases of Genesis just happened to be arranged in a way that the individuals mentioned would have had direct accesses to the information on them. Adam certainly would have qualified to write about his own creation in the was we find it in chapter 2. It merely says God formed man and breathed life into his nostrils. Why wouldn't he be able to report those 2 facts? Certainly God would have communicated with him in some way, but the details are very generic.

Why would these accounts have to mention their death? Certainly it would be a problem for the colophon hypothesis and specifically the claim it meant the writer, if the person supposedly writing the account had already died, (not that it stops people claiming Moses wrote Deuteronomy :D ) but they the fact they don&#8217;t mention their death does not mean the colophon idea is true. Account is a pretty loose interpretation of toledoth which literally means a genealogy or descent.

Actually, toledoth is a very uncommon hebrew word for genealogy. Wiseman in his writings lists dozens of scholars that disagree with you on this.

and yes, the fact that an account is finished before the death of the named individual in the colophon does not prove he wrote it, but sure gives us a very good clue. And as Wiseman points out, this is not the case in just one of the accounts, but all of them.

What's even more interesting is even in Adam's account where Cain's line is mentioned, it also only goes down as far as Adam would have been alive to know about. It then suddenly stops.

Wiseman also points out that in Jacob's account, it mentions he still living in Canaan. And while Joseph was still alive at that time in Egypt, none of this is mentioned by Jacob, as he wouldn't have known about that stuff until he moved to Egypt himself. He wouldn't have had access to that info yet. Thus it makes sense it's not in his Canaan account.

So we have abundant evidence that these were actually accounts by the authors named.

In the context of Genesis &#8216;account of the heavens and the earth&#8217; does not mean the heavens and the earth wrote them, or even owned them. It is the story about their origin. Why shouldn&#8217;t toledoth be used the same way in used in the rest of Genesis and mean the genealogy or the story about Adam or Noah? We have Psalms of David and the Prayer of Moses which were written by David and Moses, but they do not write it the way the generations of Noah is written, toledoth nuach, one noun following the other. To indicate a psalm of David, or rather a psalm written by David, the Hebrew uses the preposition le, it says mizmor le&#8217;daviyd.

You're getting very strict with this. Remember, this is just human writings. They were just like us and followed general rules. But with that said, if there was a time to do this, wouldn't this be the right time, where no human witness could have signed this? "This is the account of creation." It's logical.

If you are using the argument that human writing predates Abraham, then you need to work out where Abraham fits in the in the dating system used to measure the earliest writing, you may not agree with that dating system, you may dismiss it as based on evolutionary assumptions, which it is not, but you still have to deal with the archaeological sequence that contains the earliest writings and where they appear in the sequence. Being intelligent is no guarantee people can write there are plenty of very intelligent people who live and lived in illiterate societies, but writing only arose a few times in human history. There is no evidence of writing in the earliest societies, and no evidence in scripture that anyone in the bible before the time of Moses could write.


You're just dead wrong on this. Wiseman quotes several archeologists that make the very opposite point. They all seem to agree that no matter how deep we go, we find civilization advanced and we find writings.

Now the assumption of these archeologists were originally the opposite. They thought that the deeper they went, the more primitive cultures they would find. But that's not what they're finding. You really should read some of Wiseman's writings. He just about crosses every T

Edit: I just read that you have read Wiseman, so disregard that part.

If Wisemans&#8217; evidence for the different uses of colophons comes from much later in the archaeological record than the use he claim for Adam&#8217;s text, then not only is he making up much earlier writing than we have any evidence for, he is being anachronistic in reading the supposed colophon in Adam&#8217;s text as if it were a much later Babylonian tablet.

I think you've missed the point. Wiseman is not claiming to have found Adam's original writings. He's claiming to have found writings that predate Moses and even Abraham, and he's claiming to have found ancient structural keys that the Bible uses and the Genesis accounts used. When this information is applied, all kinds of interpretive difficulties that have plagued commentators over the years disappear.

Among these keys are colophon phrases at the end, and interestingly, genealogies at the beginning with no particular introductory titles. And BTW, this is very common in the Bible. How many books start out with genealogies?

Gen 2:20 The man gave names to all livestock and to the birds of the heavens and to every beast of the field. Why would you think &#8216;plants of the field&#8217; means cultivated plants when &#8216;beasts of the field&#8217; is a separate category to livestock? But it is not just plants that hadn&#8217;t been created yet, the account describes God creating man and wild animals, livestock and birds and finally the woman.

No, it actually doesn't. I explained this already in the previous post.

You don&#8217;t need the word creation to have a creation account, there are different words in the bible that describe how God made everything, even Genesis 1 uses the words create and made, said&#8230; and &#8216;there was&#8217;. The creation account in Proverbs 8 makes no mention of the word create, neither does the creation account in Job 38. The creation account in Psalm 104 does use create, but only at the end in verse 30 to describe the ongoing creation of the earth at the end of every dry season, not to describe the work of creation itself. I recognised Genesis 2 as a creation account back when I was convinced Gen 2:4 was a colophon.

How about just plainly reading the text in context and noticing that God said these plants didn't exist yet because there were no farmers. Sorry, but that's exactly what it says. Why would wild plants need farmers?

But the idea that it is meant to be taken literally that it is meant as history are assumptions you bring into the text, not what we can learn about Genesis from the text itself, from other references in scripture showing us how the bible was composed and from what we understand of the text in the context it was written in. How can it be meant as a literal historical chronology when it is placed where it is in the book of Genesis with another creation account right after it which gives a completely different order of creation? You are assuming anything that isn&#8217;t literal must be a lie, which is a strange attitude for anyone who values how the bible speaks to us in both literal and non literal passages.

This assumes all your premises are true. Unfortunately none of them are.

You are assuming they were colophons and that the Israelites would have recognised them as such :) But the toledoths wouldn&#8217;t make any difference to people recognising a refutation of well known Egyptian or Babylonian creation myths. Nor is there any reason to think they would have interpreted them as signatures of the people names when the Hebrew describes them as genealogies of the people whose names they bear. They would hardly have been likely to think the heavens and the earth wrote or owned the first toledoth.

This is the whole myth that Wiseman exploded. First, there aren't enough genealogies to go around for all these colophon phrases. This has been a difficulty in interpreting Genesis over the years, and Wiseman quotes quite a few confused theologians (though, it's understandable why they were confused, so it's by no means a knock). You'd have these "generations" statements, and then no genealogy or generational info to follow. Now it makes perfect sense why this happened. We are title oriented. They writers of Genesis were not.

But that is what raqia meant and if the plain and simple meanings cosmologies we see in Genesis fit the cosmology back then shouldn&#8217;t we be open enough to accept that rather than trying to make the passages say things that fit modern cosmology when there isn&#8217;t a hint of it in the text? If we trust God and love and honour his word we really need to understand what the text is saying and understand how it is saying it, rather than making it fit our preconceptions. You should not be afraid of God speaking this way if that is what the text shows us. He is God we can still love a trust him when he doesn't do thing the way we would.

Again, you put etymology over usage, and assume ANE etymology in spite of the evidence Wiseman made available. It seems rather obvious now, that corrupted views of history and the structures of the heavens, were merely corrupted copies and retellings from these original tablets that Moses worked from. It used to be charged that Moses (or later redactors) copied from earlier creation accounts. We now can see that just the opposite is true. It's the Genesis account that is the original, and the perversions of it came later, from strange flood accounts, to false views of the cosmos.

Wiseman&#8217;s discovery that the text was edited together from earlier documents fully supports the texts identified by the analysis of the documentary hypothesis. His claim that these were colophons rather than introductory titles is controversial and rather dubious; it makes sense in some passages and not others,

Sorry, but it makes perfect sense. You're trying to poke holes in it, but have failed to this point IMHO.

while the identification as titles works better generally.

I don't think it's possible I could disagree more.

His claim writing predates Abraham does not bring writing back to the time of Adam, it does not mean that Abraham himself could write or that he wandered around with a portable library of clay tablets. Wiseman&#8217;s interpretation of the colophon as a signature is only one use of colophons they could also refer to the subject of the tablet which in fact fits the Hebrew much better.

Wiseman addressed this issue directly. Yes, they could be referring to the primary individual, but then if this is true, as Wiseman asked, why no Abraham colophon? Can any one argue that he was not a central character? And why are accounts for Ishmael and Esau and Terah in there? Are they really central characters? And since Noah is the main character in the account containing the flood, why is it signed by his sons? The main character explanation just doesn't fit. This is why Wiseman, wisely, ruled it out.

Wiseman then points out how in each case, the named individual is never attached to an account where that individual wouldn't have been alive and had access to information on those events. Between those two glaring facts, it makes sense that these were the writer/owners of these particular tablets.
 
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Philonephius

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3) Genesis rather than allegory, is a collection of historical writings passed down from eye-witnesses. The book signatures we now recognize show the authors to be contemporary to their writings.

Interesting thought, but doesn't line up with scientific evidence. Adam and Eve may very well have been actual people (I believe they were), but God did not created the world in six literal days only 6,000 years ago. In that sense, Genesis is figurative. It was written in a way that people of the time (nomads, sheep herders, etc.) could understand.
 
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Interesting thought, but doesn't line up with scientific evidence. Adam and Eve may very well have been actual people (I believe they were), but God did not created the world in six literal days only 6,000 years ago. In that sense, Genesis is figurative. It was written in a way that people of the time (nomads, sheep herders, etc.) could understand.

Ahhh, the old 'ignorant ancient folk' vs. 'smart us' argument. Oddly the Scriptures don't support such thinking. I guess that's another conflict between the wisdom of man and the wisdom of God. God's word says that we become more wicked and evil not less; that knowledge will increase but wisdom will decrease.

Of course, that is only supported by Scripture if one believes that the beginning of wisdom is the fear of the Lord.

God bless you.
In Christ, Ted
 
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Ahhh, the old 'ignorant ancient folk' vs. 'smart us' argument. Oddly the Scriptures don't support such thinking. I guess that's another conflict between the wisdom of man and the wisdom of God. God's word says that we become more wicked and evil not less; that knowledge will increase but wisdom will decrease.

Of course, that is only supported by Scripture if one believes that the beginning of wisdom is the fear of the Lord.

God bless you.
In Christ, Ted
Your beliefs are wholly based on how you interpret the Bible, no? That's how it is for everyone. When one accuses others of not having wisdom because, their beliefs do not align to the beliefs of their own, that in itself is self-idolatry.
 
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Hi po,

Well, you are free to believe what you believe, but here's some of what the Scriptures say on the subject:

For the time will come when men will not put up with sound doctrine. Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great number of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear.

At that time many will turn away from the faith and will betray and hate each other, and many false prophetshttp://www.biblestudytools.com/matthew/24.html#cr-descriptionAnchor-12 will appear and deceive many people. Because of the increase of wickedness, the love of most will grow cold, but he who stands firm to the end will be saved.

For false Christs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and miracles to deceive even the elect--if that were possible.

Timothy, guard what has been entrusted to your care. Turn away from godless chatter and the opposing ideas of what is falsely called knowledge,

These are some of the words in the Scriptures giving us fair warning of what the last days will be like concerning knowledge and the ever growing wickedness of man's thinking.

God bless you.
In Christ, Ted
 
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