Bulldog, great responses. No major disagreements with you for the most part, but I do have a few responses to make....
bulldog86 said:
Deut. 15:12-18 states exactly what I said. They'll be freed in the seventh year and were to be "furnish[ed] ... liberally" (NASB, v14). And it DOES apply to women... see the end of v17 "And also you shall do likewise to your maidservant."
Read the Exodus verse in context. It basically says, "You can sell men to wherever you wish, but you can't sell women to a foreign country. If you don't like her, she goes free, but you can't sell her..."
Exodus 21:7-8 (NASB) "'And if a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do. If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master who designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He does not have authority to sell her to a foreign people because of his unfairness to her."
But you ignored Leviticus 25:45-46, which states: "You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." FOR LIFE pretty much means FOR LIFE, and not 7 years.
And you need to quote earlier in Exodus, which states: "2 "If you buy a Hebrew servant, he is to serve you for six years. But in the seventh year, he shall go free, without paying anything. 3 If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him. 4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free."
Over and over again we see rules regarding slavery that extend for periods far greater than 6 or 7 years. I don't disagree that there are some rules for treatment of slaves, but they still are slaves. And no matter how one could characterize slavery status according to the OT, I still find it a violation of fundamental, unalienable rights that belong to each individual regardless of culture, religion, or time in history. To say otherwise would fall into relative morality to an extent that even beyond my tolerance. But that's just my opinion.
My morality is based on God. Man's law is secular and should stay as such... though I DO fear what may happen when man decides to change his laws...
But man has changed his laws since the beginning of America. Look at slavery, prohibition, women's right to vote, the voting age, the draft, racial segregation...I could go on and on and on. Do you propose we reverse all of these changes?
Good point, but Empire never was Christian. Constantine was, but he just made the "official" religion Christianity. You think that the majority of the people in the empire genuinely believed Christianity? Think again... The Emperor wants Christians... "Yes, sire, Jesus is my Savior... and thanks for the promotion."
Then what nation ever was Christian? If Post-Constantine Rome never was, then certain America never was. America never had the official sanctioning of Christianity. In fact, just the opposite. Out greatest symbols - Jefferson, Franklin, Washington, Lincoln - all were not christains, at least not such that any born-again Christain today would call a Christian. They were all deists, at best. While I do agree that most people in America, at least, do consider themselves to be "christian," I seriously doubt you would find much consensus on what that term even means if you were able to get them all in the same room.