As pointed out by other posts, you're argument equating slavery with polygamy is grasping at straws. They are two very different institutions, family vs. servanthood. It's always best to pull doctrine from the Bible as opposed to reading doctrine into the Bible based upon the values and views of our culture.
Even so, the OT regulated slavery, but did not forbid it. And the NT did not forbid slavery either. In fact, Paul tells slaves to honor their masters and masters to treat their slaves well, even freeing them; but he didn't champion a movement to set slaves free. In fact He told Onesimus (a slave) to go back to his owner whom he had ran away from.
So the moral laws of the OT stay the same, except for those concerning MDR, especially polygamy?
Concerning polygamy not being God's ideal; that God's ideal for marriage is monogamy - I completely agree!!!!! God's ideal for marriage is monogamy! Jesus' quote of Gen.2.27 clearly underscores His endorsement of monogamy as the divine ideal for marriage. Jesus words concerning marriage are an argument FOR monogamy - Yes; but they are not an argument against polygamy. Telling my children that it's best that they eat their potatoes, does not mean that I'm telling them not to eat their vegtibles. There is a huge difference between endorsement and legislation. Neither the OT nor the NT legislate monogamy or forbid polygamy. Thus God allowed polygamy in the OT and He still allows polygamy, as regulated by civil government.
Concerning "husband of one wife," again, even if Paul meant this as an endorsement of monogamy (which he didn't as established in a previous post) it is not either a Legislation of monogamy or an Exclusion of polygamy. Again, you're reading into the scripture as opposed to drawing from the scripture.
As previously stated, I to believe that God allowed polygamy and that the divine ideal for marriage is monogamy; but nothing in the NT forbids polygamy.
But concerning your example of RAPE, that was considered immoral and punished in the OT. Polygamy was not considered immoral and was certainly not punished. When using examples like that you really need to compare apples with apples, and not apples and oranges. The logic is not consistent and only makes your argument look even weaker.
You know, it really doesn't matter what "homosexual christians" claim, what matters is what the Word says. So equating polygamy and homosexuality is comparing apples and oranges, not even apples and oranges, it's like comparing apples and rocks; they're both round so they're both evil. Bad logic.
You know Nadiine, the more we discuss this the more it seems like you're grasping at straws to prove your point no matter how many of your arguments are blown away by the wind of common sence.
It seems to me like you guys are the ones with all the SHORT straws, not me. I gave valid NT verses that DEFINE God's model of the marital union - that's gone ignored,
the NT under grace doesn't allow for things that the OT allowed for
Christians as a majority are NOT led to polygamy, just the opposite in fact.
Paul taught that it's best NOT TO MARRY AT ALL in order to be free'd up to serve God fully - which polygamy actually takes even more away from than a regular couple of 2!
Then we have 2 become one flesh - 2 not 3, 4, 5 or 6.
God made 1 man & 1 woman in the beginning when OF ALL TIMES, GOD NEEDED THE EARTH REPLENISHED WITH PEOPLE. Did God make a mistake just creating 2 to accomplish multiplying humanity?
God also allowed incest for a time.... why not just create 1 man & 3 women instead?
Elders & Bishops of the church were to be blameless and THE HUSBAND OF ONE WIFE, not 2, 3 or 4... being blameless means free from being able to be charged with wrongdoing/sin...
and no, your Greek example doesn't support you in it's context as it reads in the chapter.
& lets look at that greek in 1 Tim. 2 "Husband of one wife":
aner:
) with reference to sex
a) of a male
b) of a husband
c) of a betrothed or future husband
mia:
1) only one, someone
gune:
1) a woman of any age, whether a virgin, or married, or a widow
2) a wife
a) of a betrothed woman
This is quite literal in meaning one male to one female only, not "faithfulness". (even if it were, faithfulness INCLUDES FIDELITY TO ANOTHER - as God calls us not to have other gods other than Himself which He considers adultery).
Lastly, EVERY NT VERSE SPEAKING OF MARRIAGE IS
SINGULAR MALE/HUSBAND AND
SINGULAR FEMALE/WIFE. Not plural anywhere.
Top that off with the complete absense of any polygamous NT leaders or converts practicing this in the churches to let us know this lifestyle continued from the OT.
You actually call all that
STRAWS?? If so, then I can easily do the same with every shred of what you've offered here.
There is a difference in covenants from OT to NT - and God was clearly pointing out that things that were allowed in the OT were wrong, but that He was allowing things -
We know better today than to go to war and take the women as slaves or booty - while God allowed for that back then, etc etc.
God expects more from us in the age when His light is fully revealed to all humanity thru Christ.
If you want to claim polygamy is what wants us to live by, then feel free to think it - I disagree with you and anyone else who tries to support it as something God approves us and wills for mankind.