helenofbritain
St Mary MacKillop of the Cross, pray for us
MDR = Marriage, Divorce, RemarriageThat is a very good point. I'm sorry but what do you mean by 'MDR'?
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MDR = Marriage, Divorce, RemarriageThat is a very good point. I'm sorry but what do you mean by 'MDR'?
Most scholars agree that Matthew's primary audience were the Jews and thus he included much information that meant little to non-Jews but meant a lot to the Jews. So if one does a little research you'll find that there was a debate going on between Jewish Rabbis during the time of Christ. As mentioned in my previous post, Rabbis that supported monogamy quoted Gen.2 "and the two shall become one flesh" from the Septuagint, like Jesus did. Thus understanding Mat.19 based on the Jewish cultural context, one can say that Jesus endorsed monogamy as an element of the divine ideal of marriage -- what God meant for mankind in the Garden of Eden.This passage does not support monogamy any more than the commandment "Love thy neighbour" means we should love one neighbour only.
When a man takes a wife, the two become one flesh. And if he takes another wife, the man and the second wife also become one flesh. What Jesus said here does not fly in the face of polygamy.

Peace, all
It's refreshing to see a controversial thread without flames!
I, too, do not see any clear biblical mandate against polygamy per se. For myself, my beautiful wife is all I need. But I can't see a specific condemnation against polygamy anywhere in the Scriptures.
That said, what about having multiple husbands? Culturally, we're even further removed from that--and I don't think there are any biblical examples of a woman having multiple husbands living at the same time.
In Christ,
Daniel
Greetings
For those of you who live in America, you probably know all too well that the definition of marriage is a current hot topic of debate. In an effort to solidify my understanding of its Biblical definition, I've been studying and searching for the passages that provide black and white definitions of the different aspects of marriage. The male + female aspect of marriage is clearly covered without question. However, the one man one woman aspect seems a little foggy since the Bible seems to support polygamy, at least in part.
After reading up on some extrabiblical sources on the history of the spread of monogamy, it seems that the popular opinion is that its spread was contiguous with the spread of Christianity. If this is true, then its foundation must somehow lie within the Christian faith. But where is it? Are there some doctrines held by the older churches that I'm not aware of?
One other opinion I've heard is that monogamy was a Roman cultural standard that predated Christianity. In this case, it would have been adopted by and promoted by Christianity. Could there be any truth behind this scenario?
Help would be much appreciated![]()
I highly recommend a brilliant (though extremely controversial) book entitled Leadership Is Male by David Pawson available online (in the USA) from www.Goodseed.org or from your local Christian bookstore or public lending library.
I personally have learned so much as a result of this man's teaching (especially in this book) that, years later, I am still feeding off it spiritually. It has opened my understanding so much. It is also very deep and very misunderstood as a result.
Don't be put off by the title, if you truly understand the teaching then you will understand why polygamy is wrong and you will also understand why the book could not have had any other title. Trust me the book is definitely not a treatise on mysogynism.
Simonline.

Is there any chance that you could summarize the general argument for us?
Peace, All
One more thought: in 1 Tim 3:2, 12, bishops and deacons are to be "husbands of one wife." This would indicate that churh leaders cannot be polygamous.
In Christ,
Daniel

Or that they were not to be divorcees who had remarried?
Simonline.
The fact that monogamy was held as the standard for Church leadership should tell us something.
Peace, All
One more thought: in 1 Tim 3:2, 12, bishops and deacons are to be "husbands of one wife." This would indicate that churh leaders cannot be polygamous.
As you likely know, the meaning of the phrase "husband of one wife" is widely debated in Christian circles. Some take it to imply monogomy; others think it's a prohibition against remarried divorce's or widower's. And yet others take it to mean that a single man cannot be a pastor or elder.Or that they were not to be divorcees who had remarried?
Having said all of that, the phrase "husband of one wife" likely means either a "one woman kind of man" or a "faithful man, faithful especially if he's married."
The Bible reflects many things about the society of its day. Such as slavery and polygamy. Saying that this reflection is support is taking a wild and unsupported leap. No prophet speaking as the mouthpiece of God says "Thou shalt get thee as many wives as thy can." No apostle in the NT talks about having many wives. In OT times, polygamy was practiced in many cultures. That is reflected in the scriptures, not supported.