mmksparbud
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- Dec 3, 2011
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Hello, the bible writers you referring to is Moses, Joshua?
Mostly the OT writers, and it always depends on context, of course. The term is used in the NT, and does not refer to Jesus then. It is not the same, obviously, as when it says, the Lord sent an angel.
You have to see the whole passage---such as:
1Ch_21:15 And God sent an angel unto Jerusalem to destroy it: and as he was destroying, the LORD beheld, and he repented him of the evil, and said to the angel that destroyed, It is enough, stay now thine hand. And the angel of the LORD stood by the threshing floor of Ornan the Jebusite.
the angel of the Lord in this instance is the angel that God had sent. If it says the angel of the Lord said something and then says God said---it is Jesus.
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