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Matthew 5:32

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Sean73

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Can someone explain to me why Matthew 5:32 in a Catholic Bible says "But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) causes her to commit adultery,..." NAB. But the Protestant bible replaces the "(unless the marriage is unlawful)" with "except for marital unfaithfullness" NIV.
 

RebirthDefender

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The phrase that Jesus used there in Jerome's Latin Vulgate (which is THE Catholic Bible in Latin) is "Ego autem dico vobis: quia omnis qui dimiserit uxorem suam, excepta fornicationis causa, facit eam mœchari: et qui dimissam duxerit, adulterat."

Notice the underlined portion, "fornicationis causa" which means in English "because of fornication."

staff edit, rule 2.3, 2.3 You will not post anything that puts down or belittles any Christian group or denomination.

You can be assured that the Scriptures, both as translated by Jerome, and as contained in the Greek say "because of fornication" in this verse.

The Greek phrase is as follows "EGW DE LEGW UMIN OTI OS AN APOLUSH THN GUNAIKA AUTOU PAREKTOS LOGOU PORNEIAS POIEI AUTHN MOIXASQAI KAI OS EAN APOLELUMENHN GAMHSH MOIXATAI" -- Note the phrase "LOGOU PORNEIAS" which in English means again "because of fornication."
 
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Sean73

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From what I have researched the word porneias can mean several thing all dealing being sexual in content including prostitution, adultery or an illicit marriage or relationship. The Vulgate says "except for fornication". The RSV says "except on the ground of unchastity". KJ "saving for the cause of fornication". NIV "except for marital unfaithfullness". Douay-Rheims "excepting for the cause of fornication". So there is no doubt that we are dealing with an illicit sexual relationship. Also seeing that the word porneias is being translated to fornication, the definition of fornication is having relations before marriage so how does this play into the verse? So I suppose the real question is, is divorced allowed when Jesus in so many scriptures is very stongly against it? Could it be that the divorce being allowed is similar to when Joseph was going to quietly divorce Mary who was betrothed to Joseph but they had not yet come together and that after a marriage is consumated divorce is not allowed?

staff edit: deleting parts that respond to edited post above
 
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herev

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MOD HAT ON
Please remember that Christian Forums is a large site. We have many different denominations here. In response to the OP, do not belittle or in any way insult those of another denomination, this includes comments against "Protestants" or "Catholics"
MOD HAT OFF
 
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RebirthDefender

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Mat 5:32 NKJV "But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery."


Fornication just means sexual immorality, which just means any sexual activity that God has prohibited in his word.

BTW, I did not post anything that puts down or belittles anyone, but merely that states the truth--a truth, by the way, that even many Catholics would agree with. This forums is too sensitive to these issues and censors posts that are not offensive because they have a trigger-happy finger on the censor button.
 
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