Do you believe that the morality of Christianity and Judaism are 'slave moralities' as Nietzsche talks about it (I'm not sure what he would have made of Islam).
To tell you the truth, when I first read this segment, not only was I not convinced, I was offended. Turning the other cheek, being meek and humble, loving one's neighbour and enemies, all virtues in our society, are catastrophic reversals of the master morality, so he argues. For example, say wealth is part of the morality of the masters. The slave's morality will then lead to turning acquisition of wealth from a virtue to an evil.
Did Nietzsche think that the slave morality was an unconscious reaction to their plight, or was it constructed purposefully to oppose their masters?
On a metaphorical level I can understand what he means, because it sort of makes sense with Christianity. But I have a hard time believing that his account of the origins of morality is historically accurate.
To tell you the truth, when I first read this segment, not only was I not convinced, I was offended. Turning the other cheek, being meek and humble, loving one's neighbour and enemies, all virtues in our society, are catastrophic reversals of the master morality, so he argues. For example, say wealth is part of the morality of the masters. The slave's morality will then lead to turning acquisition of wealth from a virtue to an evil.
Did Nietzsche think that the slave morality was an unconscious reaction to their plight, or was it constructed purposefully to oppose their masters?
On a metaphorical level I can understand what he means, because it sort of makes sense with Christianity. But I have a hard time believing that his account of the origins of morality is historically accurate.
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