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Mashiach or Moshiach?

I've noticed that Messianic Jews use the form "Mashiach," which I agree is correct if we go strictly by the Tanach (eg., both the king of Israel and the High Priest [Kohane Gadole] were the Lord's anointed). But other Jews - not all of them - use the form Moshiach when referring to the King Messiah. Why the difference? Is the latter more of a rabinnic usage?
 

simchat_torah

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It's merely a simple pronounciation difference, and doesn't reflect upon the Hebrew. Neither reflects the Hebrew perfectly, and when transliterating (notice, not 'translating') there's only one golden rule:

There is no right way to transliterate, but there are at times certainly wrong ways to transliterate.

Some other differences might be:

Mitzvot (most common way to transliterate 'laws') is often also mitzvoth. Then there's a difference between sephardic and ashkanazic, and you'll end up seeing Mitzvos.

Same thing with Shabbat, Shabbot, Shabbos, Shabboth, etc...
all which mean the sabbath. The 'sabbath' is the translation while all the aformentioned words are transliterations (ways to spell hebrew words in a pronounceable way). None are the "Right" way to do it.

Anyway, just thought I'd provide a couple of quick examples.

Shalom!
Yafet.
 
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YatzivPatgam

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If I am not mistaken, the name "J-man" is actually latin for Joshua, hence thats why mezzies call him "Yeshua", Aramiac for Joshua.


EDIT: P.S- There really isn't a proper transliteration of "Moshiach"- as long as it get's it's point across, I've even seen it spelled as "Mawsheeyawk".

Reminds me of Litvaks...."Shoylum!" ^_^
 
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