Argument
All animals that are poodles are dogs
An Actual Contrapositive
All animals that are not dogs, are not poodles.
And whatdya know - true thang. Tis always true matey (unless of course the initial statement is false) - cuz it be the contrapositive!
Interesting, since my example of a contrapositive was modeled after your example.
So
by your own admission, YOUR contrapositive should read;
"all people that are not married are not joined by God"
Hey! You're right, the contrapositive does work out. I apologize for my error and thank you for your clarification.
TaleSpin said:
It's not different with God; if you aren't joined by God, you aren't married. You know this, you just want to pretend otherwise.
Please, spare me the convoluted logic. Your entire argument is still worthless for lack of any reasonable basis or actual facts.
Back to the question at hand:
So, by all means, please list one, JUST ONE biblical text that clearly shows marriage without God's blessing is not a marriage.
(Matthew 19:4-6 KJV) And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, {5}
And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? {6} Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.
What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
You claim this answers my question? Fine, then all I have to do is provide biblical proof of a marriage having occurred without God's blessing, eh?
Ezra 9:2 (NIV): "They have taken some of their daughters as wives for themselves and their sons, and have mingled the holy race with the peoples around them. And the leaders and officials have led the way in this unfaithfulness"
What's this? Unfaithfulness to God, and yet still considered married??
Nehemiah 13:27 (NIV):"Must we hear now that you too are doing all this terrible wickedness and are being unfaithful to our God by marrying foreign women?"
Wicked and unfaithful, and God is joining these unions??
1 Corinthians 6:16 (NIV):"Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, The two will become one flesh."
Soooo, does God bless a union with a "harlot?" Or was the marriage made legitimate by the physical union?
And finally,
Leviticus 21:7 "They must not marry women defiled by prostitution or divorced from their husbands, because priests are holy to their God"
So, if it is specifically prohibited in the Jewish Law, that which is most revered as God's word, why is it still considered "married?"
Now, I asked you for one scripture, you failed. I supplied four to support my position, and I can quote more if you wish. Your games of pseudo-logic are childish and without merit. The only thing you've proved is a willingness to sacrifice truth in support of your own personal opinion. Jump up and down screaming "I'm right, I'm right" all you want, you're convincing nobody.
Regards,
-- Druweid